Earth Space Review
Earth Space Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following is NOT an activity usually performed by oceanographers?
a.
studying the creatures that inhabit salty water
b.
measuring physical and chemical properties of the oceans
c.
studying the processes that cause the atmosphere to produce weather
d.
examining the effects of human activities on Earth's saltwater bodies
____ 2. Which of these steps would be the first step in a scientific method?
a.
Analyze the data and draw a conclusion.
b.
Make a hypothesis.
c.
Test the hypothesis by doing an experiment.
d.
Identify the problem and determine what you want to know.
____ 3. What is the SI unit of mass?
a.
kilogram
c.
newton
b.
kilometer
d.
gram per cubic centimeter
____ 4. Which of the following conditions must apply if a scientific theory is to be valid?
a.
The theory is inconsistent with observations.
b.
The theory is the simplest explanation of observations.
c.
The theory makes predictions that cannot be tested.
d.
The theory is based on a single observation during one experiment.
____ 5. What is the longitude of the prime meridian?
a.
0°
c.
90° west
b.
90° east
d.
180°
____ 6. Which of the following is used by navigators to plot great-circle routes?
a.
Mercator projection
c.
gnomonic projection
b.
conic projection
d.
topographic map
____ 7. Which of the following is used extensively for navigation by airplanes and ships?
a.
depression contour line
c.
Topex/Poseidon satellite
b.
Landsat satellite
d.
Global Positioning System
____ 8. What is the latitude of the north pole?
a.
0° north
c.
180° north
b.
90° north
d.
360° north
____ 9. Each degree of latitude or longitude is divided into 60 smaller units called ____.
a.
meridians
c.
seconds
b.
grids
d.
minutes
____ 10. Which statement about lines of longitude is true?
a.
They converge at the equator.
b.
They converge at the poles.
c.
They are parallel.
d.
They locate positions in north and south directions.
____ 11. Into how many time zones is Earth divided?
a.
12
c.
24
b.
15
d.
360
____ 12. All flat maps distort either the shapes or the areas of landmasses because ____.
a.
the boundaries of landmasses are not known with certainty
b.
such large structures cannot be drawn accurately
c.
lines of latitude are not perfectly parallel
d.
Earth is a curved, three-dimensional object
____ 13. On a topographic map, the difference in elevation between two side-by-side contour lines is called the ____.
a.
contour interval
c.
depression contour
b.
index contour
d.
hachure
____ 14. What is a graphic scale?
a.
a statement that expresses distance, such as one centimeter equals one kilometer
b.
a ratio that expresses distance, such as 1:50 000
c.
a line broken into sections that represent units with each section representing a distance on Earth’s surface
d.
a diagram that shows the elevation of the hills and valleys of an area
____ 15. GPS satellites can relay information about all of the following except ____.
a.
position
c.
direction
b.
elevation
d.
weather
____ 16. All matter is made of substances called ____.
a.
atoms
c.
molecules
b.
elements
d.
compounds
____ 17. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a.
electrons and neutrons
c.
protons and electrons
b.
protons, neutrons, and electrons
d.
protons and neutrons
____ 18. All elements are mixtures of ____.
a.
solids
c.
molecules
b.
isotopes
d.
valence electrons
____ 19. The chemical behavior of different elements is determined by the number of electrons in the ____.
a.
innermost energy level
c.
third energy level
b.
second energy level
d.
outermost energy level
____ 20. Solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-) are ____.
a.
bases
c.
elements
b.
solids
d.
acids
____ 21. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a.
mixture
c.
acid
b.
compound
d.
base
____ 22. Densely packed, ever-changing arrangements of atoms and molecules are ____.
a.
solids
c.
gases
b.
liquids
d.
plasma
____ 23. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a.
melting
c.
condensation
b.
sublimation
d.
evaporation
____ 24. What type of bonding takes places when Na+ and Cl- combine to form NaCl?
a.
ionic
c.
covalent
b.
hydrogen
d.
metallic
____ 25. Granite is an example of a ____.
a.
homogeneous mixture
c.
solution
b.
solid solution
d.
heterogeneous mixture
____ 26. Glass is an example of ____.
a.
a solid
c.
a gas
b.
a liquid
d.
both a and b
____ 27. A molecule of chlorine gas is made up of pairs of chlorine atoms in which each atom shares one of its seven electrons to form a(n) ____.
a.
covalent bond
c.
metallic bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
solution
____ 28. In how many physical states is matter found on Earth?
a.
two
c.
four
b.
three
d.
five
____ 29. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions?
a.
positive ions
c.
both positive and negative ions
b.
negative ions
d.
neither positive nor negative ions
____ 30. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a.
acidic
c.
neutral
b.
basic
d.
both a and b
____ 31. The basic building blocks of matter are ____.
a.
atoms
c.
molecules
b.
elements
d.
compounds
____ 32. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a.
electrons and neutrons
c.
protons and electrons
b.
protons, neutrons, and electrons
d.
protons and neutrons
____ 33. Many elements are mixtures of ____.
a.
solids
c.
molecules
b.
isotopes
d.
valence electrons
____ 34. Chemical behavior is determined by the number of electrons located in the ____.
a.
innermost energy level
c.
third energy level
b.
second energy level
d.
outermost energy level
____ 35. Solutions containing a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H+) in water are ____.
a.
bases
c.
elements
b.
solids
d.
acids
____ 36. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a.
mixture
c.
acid
b.
solution
d.
base
____ 37. Densely packed arrangements of particles that take the shape of their containers are ____.
a.
solids
c.
gases
b.
liquids
d.
plasmas
____ 38. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a.
melting
c.
condensation
b.
sublimation
d.
evaporation
____ 39. What type of bonding takes place when Na+ and Cl– combine to form NaCl?
a.
ionic
c.
covalent
b.
hydrogen
d.
metallic
____ 40. Soil is an example of a ____.
a.
homogeneous mixture
c.
solution
b.
solid solution
d.
heterogeneous mixture
____ 41. In how many physical states does matter exist in the universe?
a.
two
c.
four
b.
three
d.
five
____ 42. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions?
a.
positive ions
c.
both positive and negative ions
b.
negative ions
d.
neither positive nor negative ions
____ 43. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a.
acidic
c.
neutral
b.
basic
d.
both acidic and basic
____ 44. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____ form.
a.
liquid
c.
solid
b.
gaseous
d.
organic
____ 45. The most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are ____.
a.
aluminum and potassium
c.
oxides and carbonates
b.
halite and coal
d.
oxygen and silicon
____ 46. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny surfaces and thus are said to have ____.
a.
dull luster
c.
waxy luster
b.
metallic luster
d.
nonmetallic luster
____ 47. Ores near Earth’s surface generally are obtained from ____.
a.
waste-removal facilities
b.
underground mines
c.
open-pit mines
d.
bodies of water with high concentrations of dissolved minerals
____ 48. As the water content of rock increases, the melting point ____.
a.
first increases, then decreases
c.
decreases
b.
remains the same
d.
increases
____ 49. A model that illustrates the predictable patterns of mineral formation from cooling magma is ____.
a.
Bowen's reaction series
c.
layered intrusion formation
b.
crystal separation
d.
mineral composition
____ 50. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____.
a.
fine-grained rocks
b.
when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly
c.
on Earth's surface
d.
coarse-grained rocks
____ 51. Rocks are formed when magma ____.
a.
erodes
c.
crystallizes
b.
undergoes radioactive decay
d.
weathers
____ 52. Igneous rocks that cool slowly beneath Earth’s crust are ____.
a.
extrusive
c.
sedimentary
b.
intrusive
d.
always magnetic
____ 53. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on Earth’s surface are ____.
a.
extrusive
c.
metamorphic
b.
intrusive
d.
always magnetic
____ 54. Extrusive rocks, which cool more rapidly than intrusive rocks, are generally more ____.
a.
coarsely grained
c.
radioactive
b.
finely grained
d.
magnetic
____ 55. Factors that affect a rock’s melting point include ____.
a.
pressure and water content
c.
rarity
b.
value as a gem
d.
usefulness as a building material
____ 56. Valuable ore deposits and gem crystals are often associated with ____.
a.
oceans
c.
thin crustal areas
b.
oil deposits
d.
igneous intrusions
____ 57. What type of sediment particles have worn surfaces and rounded corners?
a.
sorted
c.
clastic
b.
unsorted
d.
dissolved
____ 58. What type of bedding has the heaviest and coarsest material is on the bottom?
a.
graded
c.
cementation
b.
clastic
d.
metamorphic
____ 59. What type of sedimentary rock is coarse-grained with angular fragments?
a.
foliates
c.
conglomerates
b.
nonfoliates
d.
breccias
____ 60. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous intrusion?
a.
precipitation
c.
contact metamorphism
b.
regional
d.
hydrothermal metamorphism
____ 61. The metamorphism of limestone results in the formation of ____.
a.
quartzite
c.
gneiss
b.
marble
d.
silver
____ 62. Most of the weathering of Cleopatra’s Needle is caused by ____.
a.
hydrolysis
c.
oxidation
b.
chemical weathering
d.
frost wedging
____ 63. In which of the following climates would chemical weathering most readily occur?
a.
wet and warm
c.
wet and cool
b.
dry and warm
d.
dry and cool
____ 64. Barrier islands are formed when ____.
a.
the ocean floor is uplifted
b.
the wind continuously blows sand out to sea
c.
sand is repeatedly picked up, moved, and deposited by ocean currents
d.
sand bars are worn away
____ 65. Which of the following has the potential for the most erosion?
a.
water flowing across a flatland
b.
wind blowing materials in the air, against the force of gravity
c.
wind blowing materials down a slope
d.
water flowing down a steep slope
____ 66. What is one source of organic matter in soil?
a.
acid precipitation
c.
weathered topsoil
b.
dead fungi, bacteria, and protozoa
d.
eroding bedrock
____ 67. Of the three soil samples shown below, Sample 1, the darkest and richest, would be found in ____ of a typical soil profile.
a.
horizon A
c.
horizon C
b.
horizon B
d.
the hardpan
____ 68. Which of the following characteristics of water can be responsible for mechanical weathering?
a.
Water flows downstream under gravity.
b.
Water expands when it freezes.
c.
Water combines with atmospheric gases to form acid rain.
d.
Water reacts with and can dissolve many kinds of minerals.
____ 69. In which of the following areas is wind a major erosional agent?
a.
grasslands
c.
deserts
b.
temperate forests
d.
tropical rain forests
____ 70. Which of the following statements is NOT true of soil?
a.
It is a loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic matter.
b.
There is one kind of soil in the United States.
c.
Living organisms add nutrients to it.
d.
It takes a long time to form.
____ 71. Which of the following could increase the rate of chemical weathering of a rock?
a.
moving it to a location with few plants and animals
b.
moving it to a drier climate
c.
increasing its total surface area
d.
moving it to a colder climate
____ 72. Which of the following happens when a river enters a large body of water?
a.
The river water slows down and deposits large amounts of sediments.
b.
The river water increases its speed and carries out gully erosion.
c.
The river water flows over the delta, causing exfoliation.
d.
The river water erodes the shoreline and deposits barrier islands.
____ 73. The color of a soil ____.
a.
is a reliable indicator of its fertility
b.
is always dark brown or black
c.
is not dependent on the amount of humus
d.
is determined by its composition and climate
____ 74. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the deposition of eroded materials in bodies of water?
a.
It improves the quality of ecosystems.
b.
It limits the availability of water for hydroelectric energy.
c.
It reduces water supplies for personal consumption.
d.
It can restrict navigation through the water bodies.
____ 75. Which of the following statements is NOT true of soils in sloped areas?
a.
Smaller particles remain on the slopes, while coarser particles move downslope.
b.
Soils on slopes tend to be infertile.
c.
Valley soils are usually thick.
d.
South-facing slopes have somewhat thicker soils than slopes facing other directions.
____ 76. There can be no stream erosion or glacial erosion without ____.
a.
gravity
c.
wind
b.
hydrolysis
d.
deposition
____ 77. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the factors affecting mass movement?
a.
Sudden mass movements are usually started by triggers such as earthquakes.
b.
After a heavy rain, sediment moves along with the water.
c.
A small amount of water may make the slope more stable.
d.
An important force that determines a material’s resistance to downhill movement is friction.
____ 78. Which of the following actions could prevent mass-movement disasters?
a.
constructing buildings and roads in stream drainage paths
b.
removing trees from steep slopes
c.
educating people about the advantages of building on steep slopes
d.
digging a series of trenches to divert water around a slope
____ 79. Which of the following statements is true about wind transport?
a.
Wind, like water, can only move materials downhill.
b.
Wind and water have the same relative ability to erode materials.
c.
Wind transport and erosion primarily occur in areas with little vegetative cover.
d.
Generally, wind can carry particles as large as those transported by moving water.
____ 80. Dune formation will take place when ____.
a.
high winds, sand, and no vegetation are present
b.
sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
c.
only with quartz sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
d.
high winds are available
____ 81. Where there is limited sand available and strong prevailing winds, ____.
a.
longitudinal dunes are formed
c.
no dune formation can take place
b.
parabolic dunes form
d.
transverse dunes are formed
____ 82. Which of the following statements is NOT true about valley glaciers?
a.
Flow rates are the same within the various portions of the glacier.
b.
The speed of the glacier is affected by the slope of the valley floor.
c.
They widen V-shaped stream valleys in U-shaped glacial valleys.
d.
Movement is usually less than a few millimeters a day.
____ 83. A ridge consisting of mixed debris deposited by a glacier is a(n) ____.
a.
outwash plain
c.
moraine
b.
kettle
d.
esker
____ 84. The glacial feature shown below is formed when ____.
a.
glaciers pluck a large hole in the valley
b.
water from an outwash plain flows into the valley
c.
glaciers move over older moraines and form the material into elongated landforms
d.
long, winding ridges of layered sediments are deposited by streams flowing under a melting glacier
____ 85. Which of the following is NOT an indication that creep has occurred?
a.
Parallel grooves form in bedrock.
c.
Trees become bent.
b.
Vertical structures become tilted.
d.
Underground pipelines break.
____ 86. Slumps are common after a rainfall because the water ____.
a.
reduces friction between soil grains
b.
breaks the underlying rock
c.
causes snow to melt
d.
washes away the vegetation cover
____ 87. Which of the following causes deflation?
a.
glacial erosion
c.
wind deposition
b.
deposition by meltwaters
d.
wind erosion
____ 88. Glaciers covered 30 percent of the earth during the last ice age that began about ____.
a.
10 000 years ago
c.
2000 years ago
b.
1.6 million years ago
d.
50 million years ago
____ 89. Which of the following is NOT true about glaciers?
a.
Glaciers can form along the equator.
c.
Only valley glaciers flow.
b.
Glaciers carve U-shaped valleys.
d.
Glaciers produce moraines.
____ 90. When two cirques on opposite sides of a valley meet, they form a(n) ____.
a.
arête
c.
moraine
b.
drumlin
d.
avalanche
____ 91. A landslide that occurs on steep slopes in mountainous area is called a(n) ____.
a.
rockslide
c.
avalanche
b.
slump
d.
mudflow
____ 92. Earth’s atmosphere contains more ____ than any other substance.
a.
hydrogen and nitrogen
c.
nitrogen and oxygen
b.
helium and oxygen
d.
carbon and nitrogen
____ 93. When the temperature in the atmosphere reaches the ____, condensation occurs.
a.
flash point
c.
evaporation point
b.
dew point
d.
inversion point
____ 94. ____ can act as a lid or trap, thus worsening air-pollution problems.
a.
Temperature inversions
c.
Lifted condensation levels
b.
Relative humidity
d.
Convection currents
____ 95. An air mass that has high ____ resists rising.
a.
moisture
c.
stability
b.
density
d.
heat
____ 96. Condensation nuclei are particles of atmospheric dust around which ____.
a.
ozone collects
c.
evaporation occurs
b.
cloud droplets form
d.
winds form
____ 97. In orographic lifting, clouds form when moist winds ____.
a.
flow over the sea
c.
encounter mountains
b.
become drier
d.
warm up the ground
____ 98. Cloud droplets collide to form larger droplets in a process called ____.
a.
coalescence
c.
condensation
b.
convection
d.
composition
____ 99. What is the constant movement of water between the atmosphere and Earth’s surface?
a.
precipitation cycle
c.
cloud cycle
b.
water cycle
d.
atmosphere cycle
____ 100. Current, short-term variations in the atmosphere are referred to as ____.
a.
humidity
c.
weather
b.
lapse rate
d.
the ionosphere
____ 101. The Coriolis effect is due to the ____ of Earth.
a.
revolution
c.
shape
b.
rotation
d.
density
____ 102. Low-pressure systems are usually associated with ____ weather.
a.
cold and dry
c.
sunny and dry
b.
cloudy and rainy
d.
warm and humid
____ 103. A(n) ____ forecast involves comparing current weather patterns to patterns that took place in the past.
a.
real-time
c.
analog
b.
digital
d.
comparative
____ 104. Whether the day will be rainy or dry can be predicted somewhat accurately by a long-term forecast at the ____ range.
a.
one- to two-month
c.
one- to three-day
b.
four- to seven-day
d.
one- to two-week
____ 105. Low-pressure systems that heavily influence weather in the middle latitudes are ____.
a.
polar easterlies
c.
air masses
b.
wave cyclones
d.
warm fronts
____ 106. A weather instrument that measures the height of clouds and estimates the amount of cloud cover is a(n) ____.
a.
hygrometer
c.
ceilometer
b.
anemometer
d.
barometer
____ 107. A balloon-borne package of sensors that gathers upper-level temperature, air pressure, and humidity is ____.
a.
a radiosonde
c.
a hygrometer
b.
a satellite
d.
Doppler radar
____ 108. The change in wave frequency of energy as it moves toward or away from an observer is the ____.
a.
Coriolis effect
c.
convergence effect
b.
Doppler effect
d.
radar effect
____ 109. Polar and tropical regions maintain fairly constant average temperatures because ____.
a.
the Sun always strikes these regions at the same angle
b.
air masses remain stationary near the poles and equator
c.
Earth radiates extra energy back into space
d.
the continual motion of air and water reallocates heat energy throughout Earth
____ 110. Differences in thermal energy can be detected with ____.
a.
ultraviolet imagery
c.
infrared imagery
b.
visible light
d.
sonar imagery
____ 111. A record of weather data for a particular site at a particular time is a(n) ____.
a.
station model
c.
isopleth model
b.
topographic map
d.
climate map
____ 112. Lines on a map that connect points of equal or constant values are ____.
a.
boundaries
c.
fronts
b.
isopleths
d.
station models
____ 113. The exchange of heat or moisture with the surface over which an air mass travels is known as ____.
a.
intertropical convergence
c.
occlusion
b.
air mass modification
d.
air mass exchange
____ 114. A(n) ____ thunderstorm forms because of unequal heating of Earth’s surface within one air mass.
a.
frontal mass
c.
air mass
b.
cold front
d.
air pressure
____ 115. The rising, moist updrafts and the falling, cool downdrafts form a convection cell that produces the ____ associated with thunderstorms.
a.
temperatures
c.
humidity
b.
thunder
d.
gusty surface winds
____ 116. Very severe thunderstorms can form when a ____ has a large continuous supply of warm air to lift and condense.
a.
cold front
c.
warm front
b.
warm air mass
d.
tornado
____ 117. When friction between updrafts and downdrafts within a cumulonimbus cloud creates regions of air with opposite charges, ____ forms.
a.
warm air
c.
precipitation
b.
lightning
d.
ozone
____ 118. ____ are often associated with very severe thunderstorms called supercells.
a.
Tornadoes
c.
Hurricanes
b.
Sea breezes
d.
Heat waves
____ 119. A mound of water driven toward coastal areas by hurricane winds is called a ____.
a.
cyclone
c.
storm surge
b.
supercell
d.
cold front
____ 120. An extended period of well-below-normal rainfall is a ____.
a.
flood
c.
heat wave
b.
drought
d.
tropical cyclone
____ 121. The phenomenon in which the effects of cold air are worsened by wind is the ____.
a.
supercell
c.
wind chill factor
b.
sea breeze
d.
cold wave
____ 122. Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to the formation of hail?
a.
the ability of water droplets to exist in a liquid state in parts of a cloud where the temperature is below freezing
b.
the encounter between supercooled water droplets and ice pellets
c.
the dissipation of warm, moist air at the Earth’s surface by downdrafts
d.
the existence of strong updrafts and downdrafts side by side within a cloud
____ 123. In addition to average weather conditions, climatological data also describes annual variations and fluctuations of temperature, precipitation, ____, and other variables.
a.
cloud height
c.
ocean temperature
b.
wind speed
d.
soil moisture
____ 124. The following are true about climatological normals EXCEPT:
a.
They represent the standard values for a location.
b.
They are averaged on a monthly or annual basis.
c.
They describe normal weather conditions.
d.
The information applies only to the place where the data were collected.
____ 125. A widely used climate classification system is the ____ system.
a.
Maunden
c.
Koeppen
b.
Topographic
d.
Korten
____ 126. Studies indicate that periods of low sunspot activity, like the ____, correspond to unusually cold climate conditions.
a.
Maunder minimum
c.
Maunder divide
b.
Maunder ice age
d.
Maunder maximum
____ 127. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amounts of ____ into the atmosphere, which contributes to global warming.
a.
carbon monoxide
c.
carbon dioxide
b.
calcium carbonate
d.
sulfur dioxide
____ 128. Types of climate data include annual variations in temperature, precipitation, and ____.
a.
air pollution
c.
wind
b.
water cycle
d.
topography
____ 129. Two climates that are at the same latitude may be different because of ____.
a.
bodies of water
c.
Earth’s magnetic field
b.
distance from the poles
d.
soil type
____ 130. When moist winds approach a mountain, they often drop rain as they rise over the mountain, and come down the other side of the mountain much ____.
a.
cooler and drier
c.
warmer and drier
b.
cooler and wetter
d.
warmer and wetter
____ 131. The climatic zone that receives the least solar radiation and has the coldest climate is the ____.
a.
polar zone
c.
equatorial zone
b.
tropical zone
d.
temperate zone
____ 132. Which of the following was the first expedition to use scientific measuring devices to study the ocean?
a.
SEASAT expedition
c.
Poseidon expedition
b.
Meteor expedition
d.
Challenger expedition
____ 133. Which of the following correctly describes the order of the steps involved in the formation of sea ice?
a.
ice crystals, pancake ice, slush, pack ice
b.
slush, ice crystals, pancake ice, pack ice
c.
ice crystals, slush, pack ice, pancake ice
d.
ice crystals, slush, pancake ice, pack ice
____ 134. After volcanism created Earth's atmosphere, what happened next to lead to the formation of oceans?
a.
Earth’s crust cooled.
b.
Ice caps melted.
c.
Meteorite strikes stopped.
d.
Carbon dioxide and other gases formed in the crust.
____ 135. Which of the following is NOT true of global sea level?
a.
Global sea level can rise in response to the melting of glaciers.
b.
Tectonic forces cannot affect global sea level.
c.
Average global sea level is rising today by 1 to 2 mm per year.
d.
During an ice age, global sea levels drop.
____ 136. Which of the following affects the density of seawater?
a.
salinity
c.
hydrogen bonds
b.
melting point
d.
breakers
____ 137. Which of the following is NOT an Atlantic deep-water mass?
a.
Antarctic Bottom Water
c.
Atlantic Bottom Water
b.
Antarctic Intermediate Water
d.
North Atlantic Deep Water
____ 138. What is the average surface temperature of the ocean?
a.
–2°C
c.
30°C
b.
2°C
d.
15°C
____ 139. How does the formation of sea ice raise the density of nearby water?
a.
The water is chilled under the forming ice.
b.
Salt ions are concentrated in the water under the ice.
c.
Salty water migrates toward the forming ice.
d.
The growing ice sheet puts downward pressure on the water.
____ 140. Given enough time, wave action can make shorelines ____.
a.
irregular
c.
straight
b.
sandy
d.
into bays
____ 141. The area where a freshwater river or stream enters the ocean is a(n) ____.
a.
longshore current
c.
beach
b.
barrier island
d.
estuary
____ 142. A turbidity current can form a ____.
a.
submarine canyon
c.
continental margin
b.
continental slope
d.
barrier island
____ 143. The shallowest parts of the ocean are the ____.
a.
submarine canyons
c.
continental margins
b.
continental slopes
d.
continental rises
____ 144. A large, extinct, basaltic volcano with a flat, submerged top is called a ____.
a.
seamount
c.
mid-ocean ridge
b.
hydrothermal vent
d.
guyot
____ 145. Which of the following is NOT a source of marine sediment?
a.
seamounts
c.
volcanic ash
b.
particles of once-living things
d.
mud and sand
____ 146. Most seafloor features are changed only by ____.
a.
erosion
c.
sedimentation
b.
ooze
d.
volcanoes
____ 147. Manganese nodules are usually found ____.
a.
on continental shelves
c.
in submarine canyons
b.
in continental slopes
d.
on the deep sea floor
____ 148. The bending of wave crests as they reach shallow water is ____.
a.
a longshore current
c.
a rip current
b.
wave refraction
d.
erosion
____ 149. The submerged parts of continents are called ____.
a.
continental shelves
c.
continental crust
b.
continental slopes
d.
continental margins
____ 150. A rapid, flowing current along the bottom of the ocean is a(n) ____.
a.
longshore current
c.
estuary
b.
rip current
d.
turbidity current
____ 151. The smooth part of the ocean floor at 5 or 6 km below sea level is the ____.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
c.
abyssal plain
b.
deep-sea trench
d.
continental rise
____ 152. As a headland is eroded, the flat surface formed is called a ____.
a.
wave-cut platform
c.
sea cave
b.
sea stack
d.
barrier island
Short Answer
153.
Why do contour lines never cross?
154.
How does the Topex/Poseidon satellite collect data?
Use the table to answer the following questions.
City
Latitude
Longitude
Cape Town, South Africa
34°S
18°E
Pontianak, Indonesia
0°
109°E
Nome, Alaska
65°N
165°W
Quito, Ecuador
0°
79°W
Stockholm, Sweden
59°N
18°E
Wellington, New Zealand
41°S
175°E
155.
What is the approximate distance between Stockholm and Cape Town? Explain your answer.
156.
Why are elements, such as helium (He) and neon (Ne) considered to be inert elements? Explain your answer.
157.
Why is nitrogen gas (N2) considered to be a molecular compound and not an ionic compound?
158.
Brass is composed of copper and zinc. Why is brass considered to be a solution?
Use the information from the periodic table to complete the table below. Then answer the questions that follow.
Element
Number
of Protons
Number
of Neutrons
Number
of Electrons
Atomic
Number
Atomic Mass
(rounded off)
Oxygen
8
Fluorine
10
Neon
20
159.
In the table above, what information was filled in for the element Fluorine?
160.
The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Draw all the electrons for an atom of chlorine in the following diagram. Make sure that the electrons are in the appropriate energy levels.
161.
Discuss the unique characteristic of silica that is represented in the diagram below.
162.
How does the cost of removing waste material affect the classification of an ore?
Compare and contrast each pair of related terms or phrases.
163.
density, specific gravity
164.
luster, streak
165.
humidity, relative humidity
166.
conduction, convection
167.
digital forecast, analog forecast
168.
climate, normal
169.
longshore bar, longshore current
170.
seawalls, groins
171.
Why is color one of the least reliable tests for identifying minerals? Give an example to support your answer.
Use this table for the six mineral samples to answer the following questions.
Mineral
Specific Gravity
Chemical Formula
Breakage Pattern
Gold
19.3
Au
Hackly
Apatite
5
Ca5(PO4)3(F, OH, Cl)
Uneven fracture
Pyrite
5.2
FeS2
Uneven fracture
Garnet
3.5–4.3
(Mg, Fe, Ca) 3 (Al2Si3O12)
Conchoidal fracture
Beryl
2.75
Be3Al2Si6O18
Uneven fracture
Corundum
4
Al2O3
Fracture
172.
If the volume of the sample of pyrite equals the volume of the sample of gold, how many times greater is the mass of the gold sample than the mass of the pyrite sample?
173.
Which rock type or feature forms when rapid cooling of magma does not allow its calcium-rich core to react completely with the magma?
174.
What is fractional crystallization? Does it add or remove elements from magma? Explain your answer.
175.
Why would crystals formed early in magma crystallization have larger, better-shaped crystals than those that formed later?
The diagram shows the proportions of minerals in common igneous rocks. Use the diagram to answer the following questions.
176.
Is rock Sample A dark or light in color?
177.
What is the primary mineral component of felsic rocks? Ultramafic rocks?
178.
List the four classifications of clastic sediments in order from smallest to largest particle size.
179.
How can geologists infer from sedimentary rocks what the surface conditions of Earth’s past were like?
180.
What might happen to the rock cycle if the forces that cause weathering were absent on Earth?
181.
What is acid precipitation and how does it affect the weathering process?
182.
Describe how soil forms.
183.
Contrast mechanical and chemical weathering, and give examples of each.
Study the diagram. Then answer the following questions.
184.
What property of soil does the diagram illustrate?
185.
What is deflation, and why is it a major problem in agricultural areas?
186.
Compare and contrast the conditions that produce a valley glacier with those that produce continental glaciers.
187.
“People impact mass movement just as mass movement impacts people.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Explain your answer.
188.
What is a temperature inversion? Describe the relationship between temperature and pressure in a temperature inversion.
189.
Describe the formation of clouds.
190.
Compare and contrast the troposphere and the stratosphere.
191.
Compare and contrast the characteristics of a high pressure system and a low pressure system.
192.
Describe the importance of data from radiosondes.
193.
Describe the formation and location of jet streams.
194.
What problems are associated with long-term weather forecasts?
A meteorology class has set up a small weather station outside of school. It has a few simple instruments: a thermometer, a barometer, a rain gauge to measure rainfall, and a hygrometer. The students took measurements with the instruments once a day for a week. They then filled in the chart below. The barometer broke, so they were not able to finish collecting air-pressure data.
Use the chart and what you know about weather systems and weather forecasting to answer the following questions.
Mon
Tue
Wed
Thurs
Fri
Sat
Sun
Average temperature (°C)
23.3
22.2
22.2
15.6
16.7
16.7
17.8
Rainfall (cm)
0
0
3.31
0
0
0
0
Relative humidity
40%
60%
100%
80%
60%
50%
40%
Air pressure (mb)
1000
998
—
—
—
—
—
195.
A cold front passed through the students’ city during the week. Showers occur at fronts. On which day did the front pass through?
196.
Given the relative humidity on Thursday, would you expect clear or cloudy skies?
197.
Describe the three conditions that must exist in order for a thunderstorm to form.
198.
Why would a frontal thunderstorm that forms at a warm front cause less severe weather than a frontal thunderstorm that forms at a cold front?
199.
Briefly describe the main dangers of severe thunderstorms.
200.
Describe the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
201.
Describe the weather pattern that causes droughts, and explain how it is similar to the weather pattern that causes a heat wave.
202.
A community in Texas broadcasts public service announcements on tornado safety. Would the broadcasts be more effective right before winter, spring, summer, or fall? Explain your answer.
Table 1 shows the effect on water level of a strong thunderstorm moving through the Green River area. The normal level of Green River at Wilson Bend is about 3 m. Three houses are located near the bank of the river along Wilson Bend. Their elevations are shown in Table 2.
Table 1
Water Level at Wilson Bend, Green River
Time
10:00 A.M.
11:00 A.M.
NOON
1:00 P.M.
2:00 P.M.
3:00 P.M.
Water Level (m)
3
3.1
3.4
4.0
5.0
5.2
Table 2
House
Elevation (m)
X
8.0
Y
3.5
Z
4.0
203.
Which houses most likely flooded as a result of the storm? Explain your answer.
204.
The thunderstorm was moving over the area at about 3 km/h. How would the weather and its effects on the area have been different if the storm had moved over the area at 7 km/h?
205.
Could global warming happen without the greenhouse effect? Explain your answer.
206.
List some human activities that could contribute to changing Earth’s climate, and things that can be done to minimize the impact.
207.
List several natural cycles that could cause climatic change on Earth.
208.
Explain how an area in the tropics might typically experience abundant snowfall.
209.
Why might temperature data recorded inside a large city be inaccurate for a rural region located just a few kilometers outside the city?
The graphs below compare the annual average temperature and precipitation of two cities, City X and City Y. Use them to answer the questions that follow.
210.
Describe the temperature and precipitation for City X.
211.
What is the thermocline?
212.
Which force would cause an object floating in the middle of the ocean to move forward: ocean waves, surface currents, or density currents? Explain your answer.
Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.
213.
At what location would the density of the water most likely be the highest? Why?
Use the diagram of Earth’s gyres to answer the following questions.
214.
What might be the course of the South Atlantic Gyre if Africa did not exist?
215.
Describe the features of a beach and the process that forms it.
Research has shown that the temperature of the ocean varies with ocean depth. Use data from the table and graph to help you with the activities that follow.
Ocean
depth (m)
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
Water
temperature (°C)
23
23
23
15
5.5
5
5
5
5
4.5
4.5
4
216.
Once the cause of the temperature difference has been identified, researchers may want to determine what effect, if any, the temperature difference has on ocean organisms. Suggest questions or phenomena that might be investigated.
Problem
217. The table below shows the densities of six different metals. Make a bar graph of the information shown below. Order the densities from low to high. Label both axes.
Metal
Density (g/mL)
Aluminum
2.7
Iron
7.9
Nickel
8.9
Tin
7.3
Tungsten
19.3
Zinc
7.1
A scientist performed an experiment to find out how the volume of a gas depended on the pressure of the gas. The scientist placed a constant amount of the gas under different pressures and measured the volume of the gas at each pressure. The results of the experiment are shown in the table below.
Pressure (kPa)
Volume (L)
10
249
20
125
30
83
40
62
50
50
60
42
70
36
80
31
90
28
100
25
218. Which of the graphs below is the correct way to plot the results shown in the table above? Explain why the graph you chose is better.
219. Referring to the table above, describe the relationship between gas volume and gas pressure.
While hiking along a nature trail that leads to a forest, you notice that a certain kind of plant grows deep in the forest and out in the open, away from any trees. You also notice that the appearance of the plant depends on where it grows. In the forest, the plant has large leaves and long stems. In the open, the plant has smaller leaves and short stems.
220. Develop a hypothesis to explain this difference in the appearance of the plant.
221. Design an experiment to test your hypothesis.
Imagine you are a member of a research team that is preparing to explore a planet named Telos. Before traveling to Telos, you must learn as much as you can about the planet. Some of the information that scientists have gathered about Telos is summarized below.
Surface gravitational acceleration (the rate at which a falling object speeds up): 3.3 m/s2
Composition of atmosphere: 42% carbon dioxide, 25% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 10% water, 2% argon
Maximum temperature: 258 K
222. How are the compositions of the atmospheres of Telos and Earth similar? How are they different?
223. Are you likely to find liquid water on the surface of Telos? Explain. Hint: Assume two facts: water freezes at 0°C on Telos; and Kelvin temperature = Celsius temperature + 273.
A group of students wanted to find out if changing the composition of the atmosphere could affect the growth rate of plants. After researching the problem, they formed two hypotheses.
Hypothesis 1: Will increasing the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere make plants grow more rapidly?
Hypothesis 2: Will increasing the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere makes plants grow more rapidly?
Using a mixing valve and tanks of pure oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen, the students created artificial atmospheres with varying percentages of the three gases. They adjusted the percentage of nitrogen to compensate for changes in the other two gases. In the first experiment, the students varied the percentage of oxygen and kept the carbon dioxide level at 0.03 percent, the value in normal air. In the second experiment, the students varied the percentage of carbon dioxide and kept the oxygen level at 21 percent, the value in normal air.
The students grew pea plants in airtight chambers, replacing the air in the chambers with the artificial atmospheres. The students assessed the growth rate of the plants by measuring the plants’ heights each day for 10 days.
The table below shows the results of the students’ two experiments.
Experiment 1
Experiment 2
Percent
Oxygen
Percent
Carbon
Dioxide
Percent
Nitrogen
Growth
Rate
(mm/day)
Percent
Oxygen
Percent
Carbon
Dioxide
Percent
Nitrogen
Growth
Rate
(mm/day)
1
0.03
98.97
10
21
1
78
15
10
0.03
89.97
11
21
10
69
25
20
0.03
79.97
10
21
20
59
35
30
0.03
69.97
12
21
30
49
43
40
0.03
59.97
11
21
40
39
44
50
0.03
49.97
10
21
50
29
44
224. Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable in Experiment 2.
225. The students could have done just one experiment in which they varied both the oxygen and carbon dioxide percentages at the same time. Why do you think they chose instead to vary the oxygen and carbon dioxide percentages in separate experiments?
226. Are the carbon dioxide level in the first experiment and the oxygen level in the second experiment controls, constants, dependent variables, or independent variables?
227. Prepare a graph and plot the data for each experiment. Connect the data points on each graph with a line.
228. Describe the relationship between growth rate and the percentage of oxygen or carbon dioxide in these experiments.
229. The growth of plants also depends upon other factors, including temperature, soil water content, and light intensity. What should the students have done with such factors in these two experiments? Why?
230. Point A is located at 40°N, 75°W. Point B is located at 35°N, 120°W. When it's 10 P.M. at point A, what time is it likely to be at point B?
Mapping techniques can be used on other planets besides Earth. In 1996, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched a satellite called the Mars Global Surveyor toward Mars. One of the purposes of the satellite was to collect data about the surface of Mars. The satellite reached Mars in 1997 and then gradually slowed into a low, circular orbit around the planet. It finally began mapping the surface of Mars in 1999, a process that was scheduled to last nearly two years.
The Mars Global Surveyor carries a camera that can distinguish objects on the surface of Mars that are less than 1.5 m across. It also has an instrument that measures surface elevation as well as sensors that analyze the heat radiating from the planet’s surface. These sensors provide data about the composition of different areas of the planet. All of the information collected by the Mars Global Surveyor is transmitted to Earth in the form of radio waves. The satellite will continue to orbit Mars for at least 50 years after its mission is completed. It does not carry enough propellant to return to Earth.
231. The distance from Earth to Mars ranges between 78 000 000 km and 380 000 000 km, depending on the time of year. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. Calculate the minimum and maximum time it takes for data transmitted by the Mars Global Surveyor to reach Earth.
232. What are the advantages of using a satellite for this project instead of sending a team of astronauts to Mars to map the surface?
This map was prepared from data collected by the Mars Global Surveyor. The dashed lines on the map surround the base of the Martian volcano Olympus Mons.
233. In which hemisphere is the area on the map?
234. How far does the base of Olympus Mons stretch from north to south? (Hint: Use your answer from question 5 to convert degrees to kilometers.)
235. The top of Olympus Mons is the highest point on Mars. It is 27 km above the average elevation on Mars. (Because Mars has no oceans, its elevations cannot be defined with respect to sea level.) By comparison, the highest point on Earth, Mt. Everest, is 8850 m above sea level. How many times higher than Mt. Everest is Olympus Mons?
Two students are presented with a problem in science class. They need to identify specific compounds in an unknown mixture. This “mystery” mixture could include one or more of the following compounds: cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar. All of these compounds are white and are difficult to distinguish using sight alone.
To analyze the mixture, the students must first find ways to identify the individual compounds. Their teacher gives them five test tubes; distilled water; two bowls for the water samples; samples of cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar; dropper bottles; iodine solution; white vinegar; three shallow pans; and a candle with matches.
The students place small amounts of cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar in separate piles in the shallow pan. Then they place some distilled water in a small bowl. They add a drop of vinegar to each sample and record what happens in a data table. Only the baking soda shows any change. The soda begins to fizz due to a gas being given off.
Next they place small amounts of each compound into the other shallow pan and distilled water in another small bowl. This time, they add a drop of iodine to each sample and record their results. Only the sample of cornstarch turns blue.
They finally place a small amount of each compound in three separate test tubes and distilled water in a fourth test tube. They use a lit candle to gently heat the bottom of each test tube. Only the sugar shows any signs of melting. The other compounds are unaffected.
After finding unique ways of testing for each compound, students then repeat all three tests on the mystery mixture. The following data table is a record of their results.
Material tested
Addition of
Vinegar
Addition of
Iodine
Heated with
Candle
Distilled water
No change
No change
Boiled
Cornstarch
No change
Turns blue
No change
Sugar
No change
No change
Compound melted
Baking soda
Fizzing takes place
No change
No change
Mystery mixture
Fizzing takes place
Turns blue
No change
236. Is a control used in this experiment? Explain.
Study the diagram, which shows the formation of calcium chloride and potassium iodide. Then answer the questions.
237. Which compound in the diagram is formed by ionic bonding? Explain.
Three pairs of mineral samples are brought to you for testing. Both samples in one pair look like gold, but one is pyrite, or fool’s gold. Both samples in the second pair look like emeralds, but one is nonprecious apatite. Both samples in the third pair look like rubies, but one is a less valuable garnet. Use the information in the table to complete the dichotomous key to identify each mineral.
Mineral
Color
Hardness
Gold
Metallic gold
2.5–3
Apatite
Blue, green
5
Pyrite
Metallic pale brass, gold
6–6.5
Garnet
Red, deep red, brown
6.5–7.5
Beryl
Bluish green, green
7.5–8
Corundum
Red, deep red
9
238. Which mineral can scratch neither green stone?
239. Which mineral can scratch both green stones?
240. According to the graph below, temperature rises to 500° C at about 400 MPa. At what pressure is temperature about 1000° C, and considering this, does temperature double each time pressure doubles?
A golf course designer, who is about to build a championship golf course, has come to you with a problem. He tells you that parts of his developing course cannot grow grass and tend to flood. After testing the soil, you decide that the reason it drains poorly and doesn’t retain adequate moisture is because it has too much nonporous clay. You tell him that by adding soil conditioners, the new soil will improve its drainage and retain more water. You mention that water retention is important because water supplies are low in the hot summer months, and grasses need water to stay green. Improved drainage will also allow more rainfall to be soaked into the soil, thus lessening runoff and water erosion.
You develop a simple setup to test various soil combinations for drainage and water retention. You will add dry soil, which was heated to expel all moisture, to a beaker. The beaker has a drain hole in the bottom to allow the drainage of excess water to a measuring cylinder. You add 200 ml of water to the beakers with the various soil combinations. After one hour, you then reweigh the soil and measure the drainage water.
The clay is the unsuitable soil from the golf course. Humus and sand were picked up from a local nursery, and soils A and B are higher priced synthetic soils produced by a chemical company. Most of the soil combinations drained in less than 30 minutes. When the drain time is greater than 60 minutes, this indicates poor drainage and some of the water will remain on top of the soil, where it either evaporates or runs off. All water weights are given in grams. One gram of water is approximately equal to one milliliter.
Clay
Clay +
Humus
Clay +
Sand
Clay +
Soil A
Clay +
Soil B
Dry soil weight
600 g
600 g
600 g
600 g
600 g
Water added
200 g
200 g
200 g
200 g
200 g
Wet soil weight
690 g
730 g
640 g
730 g
760 g
Water drainage
20 g
70 g
160 g
70 g
35 g
Time to drain
>60 min
30 min
20 min
30 min
>60 min
241. Compare the use of sand and humus as far as their ability to retain water and improve drainage.
242. Why do you suppose clay has such a high evaporation rate?
243. Why is sand not a good soil conditioner?
Glaciers are similar to great rivers of ice. Glaciers certainly move slower, but they experience changes in flow rate much like rivers do. In order to determine a glacier’s flow rate, measurements are taken by a variety of methods. Some include the measurement of the movement of stakes placed in the ice, while other methods might include the observation of crevasses in the ice.
The table below contains measurements taken over 5 years. Two measurements were taken each year, one in April and the other in October. Measurements 1–3 are from the top of the glacier. Measurements 4–6 are from the bottom of the glacier. The numbers, in millimeters, represent the movement since the last measurement. Positive numbers mean the glacier is advancing. Negative numbers mean the glacier is retreating.
Top of Glacier
Bottom of Glacier
Point 1
Point 2
Point 3
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
Year 1
April
141
164
139
132
147
130
October
–8
–22
–7
–12
–18
–13
Year 2
April
163
173
162
139
156
138
October
8
11
7
3
5
2
Year 3
April
–2
–3
–1
–14
–15
–15
October
–34
–46
–31
–55
–59
–54
Year 4
April
0
–5
–1
–3
–6
–3
October
–14
–19
–13
–32
–49
–31
Year 5
April
80
106
78
68
92
68
October
2
7
3
1
4
1
244. Why might scientists wish to measure and track the movement of a glacier?
A group of students decided to make a simple model of the atmosphere. To create their model, they used a clean glass jar, hot water, and a tray of ice cubes.
The students poured hot water into the jar to a level of about 4 cm. They then filled a small metal container with ice cubes and placed it over the jar’s opening, as shown in the illustration below.
Within a few seconds, the students observed white ribbons of mist forming in the center of the jar. Soon a larger white, misty area had formed inside the jar between the surface of the water and the jar’s opening.
245. What formed inside the jar? Explain how it formed.
246. How does the temperature of the air in the model atmosphere vary with height? Explain your answer.
247. Based on your knowledge of cloud formation, compare the model with the formation of clouds in Earth’s atmosphere.
Answer the following questions based on the weather chart below.
248. In which city is it raining?
Your Earth science class is conducting an experiment to determine the salt concentrations in an estuary, a place where a freshwater river flows into the salty seawater of an ocean. You have been told that in the inland portion of an estuary, the less-dense river water overrides the denser seawater.
You have collected seven samples of water from different locations in the estuary. You have also collected a sample of pure river water and a sample of pure seawater. You make concentrated samples by boiling each estuary sample until it is reduced to 250 mL. Then you fill seven test tubes halfway with each concentrated sample. Next, you make reference samples in seven more test tubes. The table shows the contents of each reference test tube.
Study the illustration and table and answer the questions that follow.
Test Tube
Percentage of River Water
Percentage of Seawater
1
100
0
2
80
20
3
60
40
4
50
50
5
40
60
6
20
80
249. Knowing that river water is usually brownish in color and seawater is clear, how could you use the river water/seawater samples to determine the composition of the estuary water samples?
250. Would you expect the concentration of salt to be the same or different in each estuary sample? Explain your answer.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following is NOT an activity usually performed by oceanographers?
a.
studying the creatures that inhabit salty water
b.
measuring physical and chemical properties of the oceans
c.
studying the processes that cause the atmosphere to produce weather
d.
examining the effects of human activities on Earth's saltwater bodies
____ 2. Which of these steps would be the first step in a scientific method?
a.
Analyze the data and draw a conclusion.
b.
Make a hypothesis.
c.
Test the hypothesis by doing an experiment.
d.
Identify the problem and determine what you want to know.
____ 3. What is the SI unit of mass?
a.
kilogram
c.
newton
b.
kilometer
d.
gram per cubic centimeter
____ 4. Which of the following conditions must apply if a scientific theory is to be valid?
a.
The theory is inconsistent with observations.
b.
The theory is the simplest explanation of observations.
c.
The theory makes predictions that cannot be tested.
d.
The theory is based on a single observation during one experiment.
____ 5. What is the longitude of the prime meridian?
a.
0°
c.
90° west
b.
90° east
d.
180°
____ 6. Which of the following is used by navigators to plot great-circle routes?
a.
Mercator projection
c.
gnomonic projection
b.
conic projection
d.
topographic map
____ 7. Which of the following is used extensively for navigation by airplanes and ships?
a.
depression contour line
c.
Topex/Poseidon satellite
b.
Landsat satellite
d.
Global Positioning System
____ 8. What is the latitude of the north pole?
a.
0° north
c.
180° north
b.
90° north
d.
360° north
____ 9. Each degree of latitude or longitude is divided into 60 smaller units called ____.
a.
meridians
c.
seconds
b.
grids
d.
minutes
____ 10. Which statement about lines of longitude is true?
a.
They converge at the equator.
b.
They converge at the poles.
c.
They are parallel.
d.
They locate positions in north and south directions.
____ 11. Into how many time zones is Earth divided?
a.
12
c.
24
b.
15
d.
360
____ 12. All flat maps distort either the shapes or the areas of landmasses because ____.
a.
the boundaries of landmasses are not known with certainty
b.
such large structures cannot be drawn accurately
c.
lines of latitude are not perfectly parallel
d.
Earth is a curved, three-dimensional object
____ 13. On a topographic map, the difference in elevation between two side-by-side contour lines is called the ____.
a.
contour interval
c.
depression contour
b.
index contour
d.
hachure
____ 14. What is a graphic scale?
a.
a statement that expresses distance, such as one centimeter equals one kilometer
b.
a ratio that expresses distance, such as 1:50 000
c.
a line broken into sections that represent units with each section representing a distance on Earth’s surface
d.
a diagram that shows the elevation of the hills and valleys of an area
____ 15. GPS satellites can relay information about all of the following except ____.
a.
position
c.
direction
b.
elevation
d.
weather
____ 16. All matter is made of substances called ____.
a.
atoms
c.
molecules
b.
elements
d.
compounds
____ 17. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a.
electrons and neutrons
c.
protons and electrons
b.
protons, neutrons, and electrons
d.
protons and neutrons
____ 18. All elements are mixtures of ____.
a.
solids
c.
molecules
b.
isotopes
d.
valence electrons
____ 19. The chemical behavior of different elements is determined by the number of electrons in the ____.
a.
innermost energy level
c.
third energy level
b.
second energy level
d.
outermost energy level
____ 20. Solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-) are ____.
a.
bases
c.
elements
b.
solids
d.
acids
____ 21. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a.
mixture
c.
acid
b.
compound
d.
base
____ 22. Densely packed, ever-changing arrangements of atoms and molecules are ____.
a.
solids
c.
gases
b.
liquids
d.
plasma
____ 23. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a.
melting
c.
condensation
b.
sublimation
d.
evaporation
____ 24. What type of bonding takes places when Na+ and Cl- combine to form NaCl?
a.
ionic
c.
covalent
b.
hydrogen
d.
metallic
____ 25. Granite is an example of a ____.
a.
homogeneous mixture
c.
solution
b.
solid solution
d.
heterogeneous mixture
____ 26. Glass is an example of ____.
a.
a solid
c.
a gas
b.
a liquid
d.
both a and b
____ 27. A molecule of chlorine gas is made up of pairs of chlorine atoms in which each atom shares one of its seven electrons to form a(n) ____.
a.
covalent bond
c.
metallic bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
solution
____ 28. In how many physical states is matter found on Earth?
a.
two
c.
four
b.
three
d.
five
____ 29. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions?
a.
positive ions
c.
both positive and negative ions
b.
negative ions
d.
neither positive nor negative ions
____ 30. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a.
acidic
c.
neutral
b.
basic
d.
both a and b
____ 31. The basic building blocks of matter are ____.
a.
atoms
c.
molecules
b.
elements
d.
compounds
____ 32. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a.
electrons and neutrons
c.
protons and electrons
b.
protons, neutrons, and electrons
d.
protons and neutrons
____ 33. Many elements are mixtures of ____.
a.
solids
c.
molecules
b.
isotopes
d.
valence electrons
____ 34. Chemical behavior is determined by the number of electrons located in the ____.
a.
innermost energy level
c.
third energy level
b.
second energy level
d.
outermost energy level
____ 35. Solutions containing a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H+) in water are ____.
a.
bases
c.
elements
b.
solids
d.
acids
____ 36. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a.
mixture
c.
acid
b.
solution
d.
base
____ 37. Densely packed arrangements of particles that take the shape of their containers are ____.
a.
solids
c.
gases
b.
liquids
d.
plasmas
____ 38. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a.
melting
c.
condensation
b.
sublimation
d.
evaporation
____ 39. What type of bonding takes place when Na+ and Cl– combine to form NaCl?
a.
ionic
c.
covalent
b.
hydrogen
d.
metallic
____ 40. Soil is an example of a ____.
a.
homogeneous mixture
c.
solution
b.
solid solution
d.
heterogeneous mixture
____ 41. In how many physical states does matter exist in the universe?
a.
two
c.
four
b.
three
d.
five
____ 42. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions?
a.
positive ions
c.
both positive and negative ions
b.
negative ions
d.
neither positive nor negative ions
____ 43. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a.
acidic
c.
neutral
b.
basic
d.
both acidic and basic
____ 44. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____ form.
a.
liquid
c.
solid
b.
gaseous
d.
organic
____ 45. The most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are ____.
a.
aluminum and potassium
c.
oxides and carbonates
b.
halite and coal
d.
oxygen and silicon
____ 46. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny surfaces and thus are said to have ____.
a.
dull luster
c.
waxy luster
b.
metallic luster
d.
nonmetallic luster
____ 47. Ores near Earth’s surface generally are obtained from ____.
a.
waste-removal facilities
b.
underground mines
c.
open-pit mines
d.
bodies of water with high concentrations of dissolved minerals
____ 48. As the water content of rock increases, the melting point ____.
a.
first increases, then decreases
c.
decreases
b.
remains the same
d.
increases
____ 49. A model that illustrates the predictable patterns of mineral formation from cooling magma is ____.
a.
Bowen's reaction series
c.
layered intrusion formation
b.
crystal separation
d.
mineral composition
____ 50. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____.
a.
fine-grained rocks
b.
when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly
c.
on Earth's surface
d.
coarse-grained rocks
____ 51. Rocks are formed when magma ____.
a.
erodes
c.
crystallizes
b.
undergoes radioactive decay
d.
weathers
____ 52. Igneous rocks that cool slowly beneath Earth’s crust are ____.
a.
extrusive
c.
sedimentary
b.
intrusive
d.
always magnetic
____ 53. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on Earth’s surface are ____.
a.
extrusive
c.
metamorphic
b.
intrusive
d.
always magnetic
____ 54. Extrusive rocks, which cool more rapidly than intrusive rocks, are generally more ____.
a.
coarsely grained
c.
radioactive
b.
finely grained
d.
magnetic
____ 55. Factors that affect a rock’s melting point include ____.
a.
pressure and water content
c.
rarity
b.
value as a gem
d.
usefulness as a building material
____ 56. Valuable ore deposits and gem crystals are often associated with ____.
a.
oceans
c.
thin crustal areas
b.
oil deposits
d.
igneous intrusions
____ 57. What type of sediment particles have worn surfaces and rounded corners?
a.
sorted
c.
clastic
b.
unsorted
d.
dissolved
____ 58. What type of bedding has the heaviest and coarsest material is on the bottom?
a.
graded
c.
cementation
b.
clastic
d.
metamorphic
____ 59. What type of sedimentary rock is coarse-grained with angular fragments?
a.
foliates
c.
conglomerates
b.
nonfoliates
d.
breccias
____ 60. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous intrusion?
a.
precipitation
c.
contact metamorphism
b.
regional
d.
hydrothermal metamorphism
____ 61. The metamorphism of limestone results in the formation of ____.
a.
quartzite
c.
gneiss
b.
marble
d.
silver
____ 62. Most of the weathering of Cleopatra’s Needle is caused by ____.
a.
hydrolysis
c.
oxidation
b.
chemical weathering
d.
frost wedging
____ 63. In which of the following climates would chemical weathering most readily occur?
a.
wet and warm
c.
wet and cool
b.
dry and warm
d.
dry and cool
____ 64. Barrier islands are formed when ____.
a.
the ocean floor is uplifted
b.
the wind continuously blows sand out to sea
c.
sand is repeatedly picked up, moved, and deposited by ocean currents
d.
sand bars are worn away
____ 65. Which of the following has the potential for the most erosion?
a.
water flowing across a flatland
b.
wind blowing materials in the air, against the force of gravity
c.
wind blowing materials down a slope
d.
water flowing down a steep slope
____ 66. What is one source of organic matter in soil?
a.
acid precipitation
c.
weathered topsoil
b.
dead fungi, bacteria, and protozoa
d.
eroding bedrock
____ 67. Of the three soil samples shown below, Sample 1, the darkest and richest, would be found in ____ of a typical soil profile.
a.
horizon A
c.
horizon C
b.
horizon B
d.
the hardpan
____ 68. Which of the following characteristics of water can be responsible for mechanical weathering?
a.
Water flows downstream under gravity.
b.
Water expands when it freezes.
c.
Water combines with atmospheric gases to form acid rain.
d.
Water reacts with and can dissolve many kinds of minerals.
____ 69. In which of the following areas is wind a major erosional agent?
a.
grasslands
c.
deserts
b.
temperate forests
d.
tropical rain forests
____ 70. Which of the following statements is NOT true of soil?
a.
It is a loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic matter.
b.
There is one kind of soil in the United States.
c.
Living organisms add nutrients to it.
d.
It takes a long time to form.
____ 71. Which of the following could increase the rate of chemical weathering of a rock?
a.
moving it to a location with few plants and animals
b.
moving it to a drier climate
c.
increasing its total surface area
d.
moving it to a colder climate
____ 72. Which of the following happens when a river enters a large body of water?
a.
The river water slows down and deposits large amounts of sediments.
b.
The river water increases its speed and carries out gully erosion.
c.
The river water flows over the delta, causing exfoliation.
d.
The river water erodes the shoreline and deposits barrier islands.
____ 73. The color of a soil ____.
a.
is a reliable indicator of its fertility
b.
is always dark brown or black
c.
is not dependent on the amount of humus
d.
is determined by its composition and climate
____ 74. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the deposition of eroded materials in bodies of water?
a.
It improves the quality of ecosystems.
b.
It limits the availability of water for hydroelectric energy.
c.
It reduces water supplies for personal consumption.
d.
It can restrict navigation through the water bodies.
____ 75. Which of the following statements is NOT true of soils in sloped areas?
a.
Smaller particles remain on the slopes, while coarser particles move downslope.
b.
Soils on slopes tend to be infertile.
c.
Valley soils are usually thick.
d.
South-facing slopes have somewhat thicker soils than slopes facing other directions.
____ 76. There can be no stream erosion or glacial erosion without ____.
a.
gravity
c.
wind
b.
hydrolysis
d.
deposition
____ 77. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the factors affecting mass movement?
a.
Sudden mass movements are usually started by triggers such as earthquakes.
b.
After a heavy rain, sediment moves along with the water.
c.
A small amount of water may make the slope more stable.
d.
An important force that determines a material’s resistance to downhill movement is friction.
____ 78. Which of the following actions could prevent mass-movement disasters?
a.
constructing buildings and roads in stream drainage paths
b.
removing trees from steep slopes
c.
educating people about the advantages of building on steep slopes
d.
digging a series of trenches to divert water around a slope
____ 79. Which of the following statements is true about wind transport?
a.
Wind, like water, can only move materials downhill.
b.
Wind and water have the same relative ability to erode materials.
c.
Wind transport and erosion primarily occur in areas with little vegetative cover.
d.
Generally, wind can carry particles as large as those transported by moving water.
____ 80. Dune formation will take place when ____.
a.
high winds, sand, and no vegetation are present
b.
sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
c.
only with quartz sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
d.
high winds are available
____ 81. Where there is limited sand available and strong prevailing winds, ____.
a.
longitudinal dunes are formed
c.
no dune formation can take place
b.
parabolic dunes form
d.
transverse dunes are formed
____ 82. Which of the following statements is NOT true about valley glaciers?
a.
Flow rates are the same within the various portions of the glacier.
b.
The speed of the glacier is affected by the slope of the valley floor.
c.
They widen V-shaped stream valleys in U-shaped glacial valleys.
d.
Movement is usually less than a few millimeters a day.
____ 83. A ridge consisting of mixed debris deposited by a glacier is a(n) ____.
a.
outwash plain
c.
moraine
b.
kettle
d.
esker
____ 84. The glacial feature shown below is formed when ____.
a.
glaciers pluck a large hole in the valley
b.
water from an outwash plain flows into the valley
c.
glaciers move over older moraines and form the material into elongated landforms
d.
long, winding ridges of layered sediments are deposited by streams flowing under a melting glacier
____ 85. Which of the following is NOT an indication that creep has occurred?
a.
Parallel grooves form in bedrock.
c.
Trees become bent.
b.
Vertical structures become tilted.
d.
Underground pipelines break.
____ 86. Slumps are common after a rainfall because the water ____.
a.
reduces friction between soil grains
b.
breaks the underlying rock
c.
causes snow to melt
d.
washes away the vegetation cover
____ 87. Which of the following causes deflation?
a.
glacial erosion
c.
wind deposition
b.
deposition by meltwaters
d.
wind erosion
____ 88. Glaciers covered 30 percent of the earth during the last ice age that began about ____.
a.
10 000 years ago
c.
2000 years ago
b.
1.6 million years ago
d.
50 million years ago
____ 89. Which of the following is NOT true about glaciers?
a.
Glaciers can form along the equator.
c.
Only valley glaciers flow.
b.
Glaciers carve U-shaped valleys.
d.
Glaciers produce moraines.
____ 90. When two cirques on opposite sides of a valley meet, they form a(n) ____.
a.
arête
c.
moraine
b.
drumlin
d.
avalanche
____ 91. A landslide that occurs on steep slopes in mountainous area is called a(n) ____.
a.
rockslide
c.
avalanche
b.
slump
d.
mudflow
____ 92. Earth’s atmosphere contains more ____ than any other substance.
a.
hydrogen and nitrogen
c.
nitrogen and oxygen
b.
helium and oxygen
d.
carbon and nitrogen
____ 93. When the temperature in the atmosphere reaches the ____, condensation occurs.
a.
flash point
c.
evaporation point
b.
dew point
d.
inversion point
____ 94. ____ can act as a lid or trap, thus worsening air-pollution problems.
a.
Temperature inversions
c.
Lifted condensation levels
b.
Relative humidity
d.
Convection currents
____ 95. An air mass that has high ____ resists rising.
a.
moisture
c.
stability
b.
density
d.
heat
____ 96. Condensation nuclei are particles of atmospheric dust around which ____.
a.
ozone collects
c.
evaporation occurs
b.
cloud droplets form
d.
winds form
____ 97. In orographic lifting, clouds form when moist winds ____.
a.
flow over the sea
c.
encounter mountains
b.
become drier
d.
warm up the ground
____ 98. Cloud droplets collide to form larger droplets in a process called ____.
a.
coalescence
c.
condensation
b.
convection
d.
composition
____ 99. What is the constant movement of water between the atmosphere and Earth’s surface?
a.
precipitation cycle
c.
cloud cycle
b.
water cycle
d.
atmosphere cycle
____ 100. Current, short-term variations in the atmosphere are referred to as ____.
a.
humidity
c.
weather
b.
lapse rate
d.
the ionosphere
____ 101. The Coriolis effect is due to the ____ of Earth.
a.
revolution
c.
shape
b.
rotation
d.
density
____ 102. Low-pressure systems are usually associated with ____ weather.
a.
cold and dry
c.
sunny and dry
b.
cloudy and rainy
d.
warm and humid
____ 103. A(n) ____ forecast involves comparing current weather patterns to patterns that took place in the past.
a.
real-time
c.
analog
b.
digital
d.
comparative
____ 104. Whether the day will be rainy or dry can be predicted somewhat accurately by a long-term forecast at the ____ range.
a.
one- to two-month
c.
one- to three-day
b.
four- to seven-day
d.
one- to two-week
____ 105. Low-pressure systems that heavily influence weather in the middle latitudes are ____.
a.
polar easterlies
c.
air masses
b.
wave cyclones
d.
warm fronts
____ 106. A weather instrument that measures the height of clouds and estimates the amount of cloud cover is a(n) ____.
a.
hygrometer
c.
ceilometer
b.
anemometer
d.
barometer
____ 107. A balloon-borne package of sensors that gathers upper-level temperature, air pressure, and humidity is ____.
a.
a radiosonde
c.
a hygrometer
b.
a satellite
d.
Doppler radar
____ 108. The change in wave frequency of energy as it moves toward or away from an observer is the ____.
a.
Coriolis effect
c.
convergence effect
b.
Doppler effect
d.
radar effect
____ 109. Polar and tropical regions maintain fairly constant average temperatures because ____.
a.
the Sun always strikes these regions at the same angle
b.
air masses remain stationary near the poles and equator
c.
Earth radiates extra energy back into space
d.
the continual motion of air and water reallocates heat energy throughout Earth
____ 110. Differences in thermal energy can be detected with ____.
a.
ultraviolet imagery
c.
infrared imagery
b.
visible light
d.
sonar imagery
____ 111. A record of weather data for a particular site at a particular time is a(n) ____.
a.
station model
c.
isopleth model
b.
topographic map
d.
climate map
____ 112. Lines on a map that connect points of equal or constant values are ____.
a.
boundaries
c.
fronts
b.
isopleths
d.
station models
____ 113. The exchange of heat or moisture with the surface over which an air mass travels is known as ____.
a.
intertropical convergence
c.
occlusion
b.
air mass modification
d.
air mass exchange
____ 114. A(n) ____ thunderstorm forms because of unequal heating of Earth’s surface within one air mass.
a.
frontal mass
c.
air mass
b.
cold front
d.
air pressure
____ 115. The rising, moist updrafts and the falling, cool downdrafts form a convection cell that produces the ____ associated with thunderstorms.
a.
temperatures
c.
humidity
b.
thunder
d.
gusty surface winds
____ 116. Very severe thunderstorms can form when a ____ has a large continuous supply of warm air to lift and condense.
a.
cold front
c.
warm front
b.
warm air mass
d.
tornado
____ 117. When friction between updrafts and downdrafts within a cumulonimbus cloud creates regions of air with opposite charges, ____ forms.
a.
warm air
c.
precipitation
b.
lightning
d.
ozone
____ 118. ____ are often associated with very severe thunderstorms called supercells.
a.
Tornadoes
c.
Hurricanes
b.
Sea breezes
d.
Heat waves
____ 119. A mound of water driven toward coastal areas by hurricane winds is called a ____.
a.
cyclone
c.
storm surge
b.
supercell
d.
cold front
____ 120. An extended period of well-below-normal rainfall is a ____.
a.
flood
c.
heat wave
b.
drought
d.
tropical cyclone
____ 121. The phenomenon in which the effects of cold air are worsened by wind is the ____.
a.
supercell
c.
wind chill factor
b.
sea breeze
d.
cold wave
____ 122. Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to the formation of hail?
a.
the ability of water droplets to exist in a liquid state in parts of a cloud where the temperature is below freezing
b.
the encounter between supercooled water droplets and ice pellets
c.
the dissipation of warm, moist air at the Earth’s surface by downdrafts
d.
the existence of strong updrafts and downdrafts side by side within a cloud
____ 123. In addition to average weather conditions, climatological data also describes annual variations and fluctuations of temperature, precipitation, ____, and other variables.
a.
cloud height
c.
ocean temperature
b.
wind speed
d.
soil moisture
____ 124. The following are true about climatological normals EXCEPT:
a.
They represent the standard values for a location.
b.
They are averaged on a monthly or annual basis.
c.
They describe normal weather conditions.
d.
The information applies only to the place where the data were collected.
____ 125. A widely used climate classification system is the ____ system.
a.
Maunden
c.
Koeppen
b.
Topographic
d.
Korten
____ 126. Studies indicate that periods of low sunspot activity, like the ____, correspond to unusually cold climate conditions.
a.
Maunder minimum
c.
Maunder divide
b.
Maunder ice age
d.
Maunder maximum
____ 127. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amounts of ____ into the atmosphere, which contributes to global warming.
a.
carbon monoxide
c.
carbon dioxide
b.
calcium carbonate
d.
sulfur dioxide
____ 128. Types of climate data include annual variations in temperature, precipitation, and ____.
a.
air pollution
c.
wind
b.
water cycle
d.
topography
____ 129. Two climates that are at the same latitude may be different because of ____.
a.
bodies of water
c.
Earth’s magnetic field
b.
distance from the poles
d.
soil type
____ 130. When moist winds approach a mountain, they often drop rain as they rise over the mountain, and come down the other side of the mountain much ____.
a.
cooler and drier
c.
warmer and drier
b.
cooler and wetter
d.
warmer and wetter
____ 131. The climatic zone that receives the least solar radiation and has the coldest climate is the ____.
a.
polar zone
c.
equatorial zone
b.
tropical zone
d.
temperate zone
____ 132. Which of the following was the first expedition to use scientific measuring devices to study the ocean?
a.
SEASAT expedition
c.
Poseidon expedition
b.
Meteor expedition
d.
Challenger expedition
____ 133. Which of the following correctly describes the order of the steps involved in the formation of sea ice?
a.
ice crystals, pancake ice, slush, pack ice
b.
slush, ice crystals, pancake ice, pack ice
c.
ice crystals, slush, pack ice, pancake ice
d.
ice crystals, slush, pancake ice, pack ice
____ 134. After volcanism created Earth's atmosphere, what happened next to lead to the formation of oceans?
a.
Earth’s crust cooled.
b.
Ice caps melted.
c.
Meteorite strikes stopped.
d.
Carbon dioxide and other gases formed in the crust.
____ 135. Which of the following is NOT true of global sea level?
a.
Global sea level can rise in response to the melting of glaciers.
b.
Tectonic forces cannot affect global sea level.
c.
Average global sea level is rising today by 1 to 2 mm per year.
d.
During an ice age, global sea levels drop.
____ 136. Which of the following affects the density of seawater?
a.
salinity
c.
hydrogen bonds
b.
melting point
d.
breakers
____ 137. Which of the following is NOT an Atlantic deep-water mass?
a.
Antarctic Bottom Water
c.
Atlantic Bottom Water
b.
Antarctic Intermediate Water
d.
North Atlantic Deep Water
____ 138. What is the average surface temperature of the ocean?
a.
–2°C
c.
30°C
b.
2°C
d.
15°C
____ 139. How does the formation of sea ice raise the density of nearby water?
a.
The water is chilled under the forming ice.
b.
Salt ions are concentrated in the water under the ice.
c.
Salty water migrates toward the forming ice.
d.
The growing ice sheet puts downward pressure on the water.
____ 140. Given enough time, wave action can make shorelines ____.
a.
irregular
c.
straight
b.
sandy
d.
into bays
____ 141. The area where a freshwater river or stream enters the ocean is a(n) ____.
a.
longshore current
c.
beach
b.
barrier island
d.
estuary
____ 142. A turbidity current can form a ____.
a.
submarine canyon
c.
continental margin
b.
continental slope
d.
barrier island
____ 143. The shallowest parts of the ocean are the ____.
a.
submarine canyons
c.
continental margins
b.
continental slopes
d.
continental rises
____ 144. A large, extinct, basaltic volcano with a flat, submerged top is called a ____.
a.
seamount
c.
mid-ocean ridge
b.
hydrothermal vent
d.
guyot
____ 145. Which of the following is NOT a source of marine sediment?
a.
seamounts
c.
volcanic ash
b.
particles of once-living things
d.
mud and sand
____ 146. Most seafloor features are changed only by ____.
a.
erosion
c.
sedimentation
b.
ooze
d.
volcanoes
____ 147. Manganese nodules are usually found ____.
a.
on continental shelves
c.
in submarine canyons
b.
in continental slopes
d.
on the deep sea floor
____ 148. The bending of wave crests as they reach shallow water is ____.
a.
a longshore current
c.
a rip current
b.
wave refraction
d.
erosion
____ 149. The submerged parts of continents are called ____.
a.
continental shelves
c.
continental crust
b.
continental slopes
d.
continental margins
____ 150. A rapid, flowing current along the bottom of the ocean is a(n) ____.
a.
longshore current
c.
estuary
b.
rip current
d.
turbidity current
____ 151. The smooth part of the ocean floor at 5 or 6 km below sea level is the ____.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
c.
abyssal plain
b.
deep-sea trench
d.
continental rise
____ 152. As a headland is eroded, the flat surface formed is called a ____.
a.
wave-cut platform
c.
sea cave
b.
sea stack
d.
barrier island
Short Answer
153.
Why do contour lines never cross?
154.
How does the Topex/Poseidon satellite collect data?
Use the table to answer the following questions.
City
Latitude
Longitude
Cape Town, South Africa
34°S
18°E
Pontianak, Indonesia
0°
109°E
Nome, Alaska
65°N
165°W
Quito, Ecuador
0°
79°W
Stockholm, Sweden
59°N
18°E
Wellington, New Zealand
41°S
175°E
155.
What is the approximate distance between Stockholm and Cape Town? Explain your answer.
156.
Why are elements, such as helium (He) and neon (Ne) considered to be inert elements? Explain your answer.
157.
Why is nitrogen gas (N2) considered to be a molecular compound and not an ionic compound?
158.
Brass is composed of copper and zinc. Why is brass considered to be a solution?
Use the information from the periodic table to complete the table below. Then answer the questions that follow.
Element
Number
of Protons
Number
of Neutrons
Number
of Electrons
Atomic
Number
Atomic Mass
(rounded off)
Oxygen
8
Fluorine
10
Neon
20
159.
In the table above, what information was filled in for the element Fluorine?
160.
The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Draw all the electrons for an atom of chlorine in the following diagram. Make sure that the electrons are in the appropriate energy levels.
161.
Discuss the unique characteristic of silica that is represented in the diagram below.
162.
How does the cost of removing waste material affect the classification of an ore?
Compare and contrast each pair of related terms or phrases.
163.
density, specific gravity
164.
luster, streak
165.
humidity, relative humidity
166.
conduction, convection
167.
digital forecast, analog forecast
168.
climate, normal
169.
longshore bar, longshore current
170.
seawalls, groins
171.
Why is color one of the least reliable tests for identifying minerals? Give an example to support your answer.
Use this table for the six mineral samples to answer the following questions.
Mineral
Specific Gravity
Chemical Formula
Breakage Pattern
Gold
19.3
Au
Hackly
Apatite
5
Ca5(PO4)3(F, OH, Cl)
Uneven fracture
Pyrite
5.2
FeS2
Uneven fracture
Garnet
3.5–4.3
(Mg, Fe, Ca) 3 (Al2Si3O12)
Conchoidal fracture
Beryl
2.75
Be3Al2Si6O18
Uneven fracture
Corundum
4
Al2O3
Fracture
172.
If the volume of the sample of pyrite equals the volume of the sample of gold, how many times greater is the mass of the gold sample than the mass of the pyrite sample?
173.
Which rock type or feature forms when rapid cooling of magma does not allow its calcium-rich core to react completely with the magma?
174.
What is fractional crystallization? Does it add or remove elements from magma? Explain your answer.
175.
Why would crystals formed early in magma crystallization have larger, better-shaped crystals than those that formed later?
The diagram shows the proportions of minerals in common igneous rocks. Use the diagram to answer the following questions.
176.
Is rock Sample A dark or light in color?
177.
What is the primary mineral component of felsic rocks? Ultramafic rocks?
178.
List the four classifications of clastic sediments in order from smallest to largest particle size.
179.
How can geologists infer from sedimentary rocks what the surface conditions of Earth’s past were like?
180.
What might happen to the rock cycle if the forces that cause weathering were absent on Earth?
181.
What is acid precipitation and how does it affect the weathering process?
182.
Describe how soil forms.
183.
Contrast mechanical and chemical weathering, and give examples of each.
Study the diagram. Then answer the following questions.
184.
What property of soil does the diagram illustrate?
185.
What is deflation, and why is it a major problem in agricultural areas?
186.
Compare and contrast the conditions that produce a valley glacier with those that produce continental glaciers.
187.
“People impact mass movement just as mass movement impacts people.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Explain your answer.
188.
What is a temperature inversion? Describe the relationship between temperature and pressure in a temperature inversion.
189.
Describe the formation of clouds.
190.
Compare and contrast the troposphere and the stratosphere.
191.
Compare and contrast the characteristics of a high pressure system and a low pressure system.
192.
Describe the importance of data from radiosondes.
193.
Describe the formation and location of jet streams.
194.
What problems are associated with long-term weather forecasts?
A meteorology class has set up a small weather station outside of school. It has a few simple instruments: a thermometer, a barometer, a rain gauge to measure rainfall, and a hygrometer. The students took measurements with the instruments once a day for a week. They then filled in the chart below. The barometer broke, so they were not able to finish collecting air-pressure data.
Use the chart and what you know about weather systems and weather forecasting to answer the following questions.
Mon
Tue
Wed
Thurs
Fri
Sat
Sun
Average temperature (°C)
23.3
22.2
22.2
15.6
16.7
16.7
17.8
Rainfall (cm)
0
0
3.31
0
0
0
0
Relative humidity
40%
60%
100%
80%
60%
50%
40%
Air pressure (mb)
1000
998
—
—
—
—
—
195.
A cold front passed through the students’ city during the week. Showers occur at fronts. On which day did the front pass through?
196.
Given the relative humidity on Thursday, would you expect clear or cloudy skies?
197.
Describe the three conditions that must exist in order for a thunderstorm to form.
198.
Why would a frontal thunderstorm that forms at a warm front cause less severe weather than a frontal thunderstorm that forms at a cold front?
199.
Briefly describe the main dangers of severe thunderstorms.
200.
Describe the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
201.
Describe the weather pattern that causes droughts, and explain how it is similar to the weather pattern that causes a heat wave.
202.
A community in Texas broadcasts public service announcements on tornado safety. Would the broadcasts be more effective right before winter, spring, summer, or fall? Explain your answer.
Table 1 shows the effect on water level of a strong thunderstorm moving through the Green River area. The normal level of Green River at Wilson Bend is about 3 m. Three houses are located near the bank of the river along Wilson Bend. Their elevations are shown in Table 2.
Table 1
Water Level at Wilson Bend, Green River
Time
10:00 A.M.
11:00 A.M.
NOON
1:00 P.M.
2:00 P.M.
3:00 P.M.
Water Level (m)
3
3.1
3.4
4.0
5.0
5.2
Table 2
House
Elevation (m)
X
8.0
Y
3.5
Z
4.0
203.
Which houses most likely flooded as a result of the storm? Explain your answer.
204.
The thunderstorm was moving over the area at about 3 km/h. How would the weather and its effects on the area have been different if the storm had moved over the area at 7 km/h?
205.
Could global warming happen without the greenhouse effect? Explain your answer.
206.
List some human activities that could contribute to changing Earth’s climate, and things that can be done to minimize the impact.
207.
List several natural cycles that could cause climatic change on Earth.
208.
Explain how an area in the tropics might typically experience abundant snowfall.
209.
Why might temperature data recorded inside a large city be inaccurate for a rural region located just a few kilometers outside the city?
The graphs below compare the annual average temperature and precipitation of two cities, City X and City Y. Use them to answer the questions that follow.
210.
Describe the temperature and precipitation for City X.
211.
What is the thermocline?
212.
Which force would cause an object floating in the middle of the ocean to move forward: ocean waves, surface currents, or density currents? Explain your answer.
Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.
213.
At what location would the density of the water most likely be the highest? Why?
Use the diagram of Earth’s gyres to answer the following questions.
214.
What might be the course of the South Atlantic Gyre if Africa did not exist?
215.
Describe the features of a beach and the process that forms it.
Research has shown that the temperature of the ocean varies with ocean depth. Use data from the table and graph to help you with the activities that follow.
Ocean
depth (m)
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
Water
temperature (°C)
23
23
23
15
5.5
5
5
5
5
4.5
4.5
4
216.
Once the cause of the temperature difference has been identified, researchers may want to determine what effect, if any, the temperature difference has on ocean organisms. Suggest questions or phenomena that might be investigated.
Problem
217. The table below shows the densities of six different metals. Make a bar graph of the information shown below. Order the densities from low to high. Label both axes.
Metal
Density (g/mL)
Aluminum
2.7
Iron
7.9
Nickel
8.9
Tin
7.3
Tungsten
19.3
Zinc
7.1
A scientist performed an experiment to find out how the volume of a gas depended on the pressure of the gas. The scientist placed a constant amount of the gas under different pressures and measured the volume of the gas at each pressure. The results of the experiment are shown in the table below.
Pressure (kPa)
Volume (L)
10
249
20
125
30
83
40
62
50
50
60
42
70
36
80
31
90
28
100
25
218. Which of the graphs below is the correct way to plot the results shown in the table above? Explain why the graph you chose is better.
219. Referring to the table above, describe the relationship between gas volume and gas pressure.
While hiking along a nature trail that leads to a forest, you notice that a certain kind of plant grows deep in the forest and out in the open, away from any trees. You also notice that the appearance of the plant depends on where it grows. In the forest, the plant has large leaves and long stems. In the open, the plant has smaller leaves and short stems.
220. Develop a hypothesis to explain this difference in the appearance of the plant.
221. Design an experiment to test your hypothesis.
Imagine you are a member of a research team that is preparing to explore a planet named Telos. Before traveling to Telos, you must learn as much as you can about the planet. Some of the information that scientists have gathered about Telos is summarized below.
Surface gravitational acceleration (the rate at which a falling object speeds up): 3.3 m/s2
Composition of atmosphere: 42% carbon dioxide, 25% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 10% water, 2% argon
Maximum temperature: 258 K
222. How are the compositions of the atmospheres of Telos and Earth similar? How are they different?
223. Are you likely to find liquid water on the surface of Telos? Explain. Hint: Assume two facts: water freezes at 0°C on Telos; and Kelvin temperature = Celsius temperature + 273.
A group of students wanted to find out if changing the composition of the atmosphere could affect the growth rate of plants. After researching the problem, they formed two hypotheses.
Hypothesis 1: Will increasing the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere make plants grow more rapidly?
Hypothesis 2: Will increasing the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere makes plants grow more rapidly?
Using a mixing valve and tanks of pure oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen, the students created artificial atmospheres with varying percentages of the three gases. They adjusted the percentage of nitrogen to compensate for changes in the other two gases. In the first experiment, the students varied the percentage of oxygen and kept the carbon dioxide level at 0.03 percent, the value in normal air. In the second experiment, the students varied the percentage of carbon dioxide and kept the oxygen level at 21 percent, the value in normal air.
The students grew pea plants in airtight chambers, replacing the air in the chambers with the artificial atmospheres. The students assessed the growth rate of the plants by measuring the plants’ heights each day for 10 days.
The table below shows the results of the students’ two experiments.
Experiment 1
Experiment 2
Percent
Oxygen
Percent
Carbon
Dioxide
Percent
Nitrogen
Growth
Rate
(mm/day)
Percent
Oxygen
Percent
Carbon
Dioxide
Percent
Nitrogen
Growth
Rate
(mm/day)
1
0.03
98.97
10
21
1
78
15
10
0.03
89.97
11
21
10
69
25
20
0.03
79.97
10
21
20
59
35
30
0.03
69.97
12
21
30
49
43
40
0.03
59.97
11
21
40
39
44
50
0.03
49.97
10
21
50
29
44
224. Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable in Experiment 2.
225. The students could have done just one experiment in which they varied both the oxygen and carbon dioxide percentages at the same time. Why do you think they chose instead to vary the oxygen and carbon dioxide percentages in separate experiments?
226. Are the carbon dioxide level in the first experiment and the oxygen level in the second experiment controls, constants, dependent variables, or independent variables?
227. Prepare a graph and plot the data for each experiment. Connect the data points on each graph with a line.
228. Describe the relationship between growth rate and the percentage of oxygen or carbon dioxide in these experiments.
229. The growth of plants also depends upon other factors, including temperature, soil water content, and light intensity. What should the students have done with such factors in these two experiments? Why?
230. Point A is located at 40°N, 75°W. Point B is located at 35°N, 120°W. When it's 10 P.M. at point A, what time is it likely to be at point B?
Mapping techniques can be used on other planets besides Earth. In 1996, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched a satellite called the Mars Global Surveyor toward Mars. One of the purposes of the satellite was to collect data about the surface of Mars. The satellite reached Mars in 1997 and then gradually slowed into a low, circular orbit around the planet. It finally began mapping the surface of Mars in 1999, a process that was scheduled to last nearly two years.
The Mars Global Surveyor carries a camera that can distinguish objects on the surface of Mars that are less than 1.5 m across. It also has an instrument that measures surface elevation as well as sensors that analyze the heat radiating from the planet’s surface. These sensors provide data about the composition of different areas of the planet. All of the information collected by the Mars Global Surveyor is transmitted to Earth in the form of radio waves. The satellite will continue to orbit Mars for at least 50 years after its mission is completed. It does not carry enough propellant to return to Earth.
231. The distance from Earth to Mars ranges between 78 000 000 km and 380 000 000 km, depending on the time of year. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. Calculate the minimum and maximum time it takes for data transmitted by the Mars Global Surveyor to reach Earth.
232. What are the advantages of using a satellite for this project instead of sending a team of astronauts to Mars to map the surface?
This map was prepared from data collected by the Mars Global Surveyor. The dashed lines on the map surround the base of the Martian volcano Olympus Mons.
233. In which hemisphere is the area on the map?
234. How far does the base of Olympus Mons stretch from north to south? (Hint: Use your answer from question 5 to convert degrees to kilometers.)
235. The top of Olympus Mons is the highest point on Mars. It is 27 km above the average elevation on Mars. (Because Mars has no oceans, its elevations cannot be defined with respect to sea level.) By comparison, the highest point on Earth, Mt. Everest, is 8850 m above sea level. How many times higher than Mt. Everest is Olympus Mons?
Two students are presented with a problem in science class. They need to identify specific compounds in an unknown mixture. This “mystery” mixture could include one or more of the following compounds: cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar. All of these compounds are white and are difficult to distinguish using sight alone.
To analyze the mixture, the students must first find ways to identify the individual compounds. Their teacher gives them five test tubes; distilled water; two bowls for the water samples; samples of cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar; dropper bottles; iodine solution; white vinegar; three shallow pans; and a candle with matches.
The students place small amounts of cornstarch, baking powder, and powdered sugar in separate piles in the shallow pan. Then they place some distilled water in a small bowl. They add a drop of vinegar to each sample and record what happens in a data table. Only the baking soda shows any change. The soda begins to fizz due to a gas being given off.
Next they place small amounts of each compound into the other shallow pan and distilled water in another small bowl. This time, they add a drop of iodine to each sample and record their results. Only the sample of cornstarch turns blue.
They finally place a small amount of each compound in three separate test tubes and distilled water in a fourth test tube. They use a lit candle to gently heat the bottom of each test tube. Only the sugar shows any signs of melting. The other compounds are unaffected.
After finding unique ways of testing for each compound, students then repeat all three tests on the mystery mixture. The following data table is a record of their results.
Material tested
Addition of
Vinegar
Addition of
Iodine
Heated with
Candle
Distilled water
No change
No change
Boiled
Cornstarch
No change
Turns blue
No change
Sugar
No change
No change
Compound melted
Baking soda
Fizzing takes place
No change
No change
Mystery mixture
Fizzing takes place
Turns blue
No change
236. Is a control used in this experiment? Explain.
Study the diagram, which shows the formation of calcium chloride and potassium iodide. Then answer the questions.
237. Which compound in the diagram is formed by ionic bonding? Explain.
Three pairs of mineral samples are brought to you for testing. Both samples in one pair look like gold, but one is pyrite, or fool’s gold. Both samples in the second pair look like emeralds, but one is nonprecious apatite. Both samples in the third pair look like rubies, but one is a less valuable garnet. Use the information in the table to complete the dichotomous key to identify each mineral.
Mineral
Color
Hardness
Gold
Metallic gold
2.5–3
Apatite
Blue, green
5
Pyrite
Metallic pale brass, gold
6–6.5
Garnet
Red, deep red, brown
6.5–7.5
Beryl
Bluish green, green
7.5–8
Corundum
Red, deep red
9
238. Which mineral can scratch neither green stone?
239. Which mineral can scratch both green stones?
240. According to the graph below, temperature rises to 500° C at about 400 MPa. At what pressure is temperature about 1000° C, and considering this, does temperature double each time pressure doubles?
A golf course designer, who is about to build a championship golf course, has come to you with a problem. He tells you that parts of his developing course cannot grow grass and tend to flood. After testing the soil, you decide that the reason it drains poorly and doesn’t retain adequate moisture is because it has too much nonporous clay. You tell him that by adding soil conditioners, the new soil will improve its drainage and retain more water. You mention that water retention is important because water supplies are low in the hot summer months, and grasses need water to stay green. Improved drainage will also allow more rainfall to be soaked into the soil, thus lessening runoff and water erosion.
You develop a simple setup to test various soil combinations for drainage and water retention. You will add dry soil, which was heated to expel all moisture, to a beaker. The beaker has a drain hole in the bottom to allow the drainage of excess water to a measuring cylinder. You add 200 ml of water to the beakers with the various soil combinations. After one hour, you then reweigh the soil and measure the drainage water.
The clay is the unsuitable soil from the golf course. Humus and sand were picked up from a local nursery, and soils A and B are higher priced synthetic soils produced by a chemical company. Most of the soil combinations drained in less than 30 minutes. When the drain time is greater than 60 minutes, this indicates poor drainage and some of the water will remain on top of the soil, where it either evaporates or runs off. All water weights are given in grams. One gram of water is approximately equal to one milliliter.
Clay
Clay +
Humus
Clay +
Sand
Clay +
Soil A
Clay +
Soil B
Dry soil weight
600 g
600 g
600 g
600 g
600 g
Water added
200 g
200 g
200 g
200 g
200 g
Wet soil weight
690 g
730 g
640 g
730 g
760 g
Water drainage
20 g
70 g
160 g
70 g
35 g
Time to drain
>60 min
30 min
20 min
30 min
>60 min
241. Compare the use of sand and humus as far as their ability to retain water and improve drainage.
242. Why do you suppose clay has such a high evaporation rate?
243. Why is sand not a good soil conditioner?
Glaciers are similar to great rivers of ice. Glaciers certainly move slower, but they experience changes in flow rate much like rivers do. In order to determine a glacier’s flow rate, measurements are taken by a variety of methods. Some include the measurement of the movement of stakes placed in the ice, while other methods might include the observation of crevasses in the ice.
The table below contains measurements taken over 5 years. Two measurements were taken each year, one in April and the other in October. Measurements 1–3 are from the top of the glacier. Measurements 4–6 are from the bottom of the glacier. The numbers, in millimeters, represent the movement since the last measurement. Positive numbers mean the glacier is advancing. Negative numbers mean the glacier is retreating.
Top of Glacier
Bottom of Glacier
Point 1
Point 2
Point 3
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
Year 1
April
141
164
139
132
147
130
October
–8
–22
–7
–12
–18
–13
Year 2
April
163
173
162
139
156
138
October
8
11
7
3
5
2
Year 3
April
–2
–3
–1
–14
–15
–15
October
–34
–46
–31
–55
–59
–54
Year 4
April
0
–5
–1
–3
–6
–3
October
–14
–19
–13
–32
–49
–31
Year 5
April
80
106
78
68
92
68
October
2
7
3
1
4
1
244. Why might scientists wish to measure and track the movement of a glacier?
A group of students decided to make a simple model of the atmosphere. To create their model, they used a clean glass jar, hot water, and a tray of ice cubes.
The students poured hot water into the jar to a level of about 4 cm. They then filled a small metal container with ice cubes and placed it over the jar’s opening, as shown in the illustration below.
Within a few seconds, the students observed white ribbons of mist forming in the center of the jar. Soon a larger white, misty area had formed inside the jar between the surface of the water and the jar’s opening.
245. What formed inside the jar? Explain how it formed.
246. How does the temperature of the air in the model atmosphere vary with height? Explain your answer.
247. Based on your knowledge of cloud formation, compare the model with the formation of clouds in Earth’s atmosphere.
Answer the following questions based on the weather chart below.
248. In which city is it raining?
Your Earth science class is conducting an experiment to determine the salt concentrations in an estuary, a place where a freshwater river flows into the salty seawater of an ocean. You have been told that in the inland portion of an estuary, the less-dense river water overrides the denser seawater.
You have collected seven samples of water from different locations in the estuary. You have also collected a sample of pure river water and a sample of pure seawater. You make concentrated samples by boiling each estuary sample until it is reduced to 250 mL. Then you fill seven test tubes halfway with each concentrated sample. Next, you make reference samples in seven more test tubes. The table shows the contents of each reference test tube.
Study the illustration and table and answer the questions that follow.
Test Tube
Percentage of River Water
Percentage of Seawater
1
100
0
2
80
20
3
60
40
4
50
50
5
40
60
6
20
80
249. Knowing that river water is usually brownish in color and seawater is clear, how could you use the river water/seawater samples to determine the composition of the estuary water samples?
250. Would you expect the concentration of salt to be the same or different in each estuary sample? Explain your answer.
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