Final Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. What are the building blocks of all matter?
a. forces c. magnetic fields
b. atoms d. kinetic and potential energy
____ 2. What is a statement that summarizes a pattern found in nature?
a. a scientific law c. a scientific theory
b. a fact d. a hypothesis
____ 3. Which of the following is an example of a safe laboratory procedure?
a. tying back long hair and loose clothing
b. eating or drinking from laboratory glassware
c. touching hot objects with your bare hands
d. testing an odor by directly inhaling the vapor
____ 4. How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?
a. 69 ´ 10–5 c. 0.69 ´ 10–3
b. 6.9 ´ 104 d. 6.9 ´ 10–4
____ 5. Which of the following conversion factors would you use to change 18 kilometers to meters?
a. 1000 m/1 km c. 100 m/1 km
b. 1 km/1000 m d. 1 km/100 m
____ 6. Which of the following clocks offers the most precision?
a. a clock with only one hand to measure the hour
b. a clock with only one hand to measure the minutes
c. a clock with a hand to measure the hour and a hand to measure the minutes
d. a clock with a hand to measure the hour, a hand to measure the minutes, and a hand to measure the seconds
____ 7. What is the relationship in which the ratio of the manipulated variable and the responding variable is constant?
a. inverse proportion c. slope
b. direct proportion d. interdependent
____ 8. How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?
a. They all use different systems of measurement.
b. They all use SI.
c. They communicate through a universal translator.
d. They all must speak French.
____ 9. If an unknown substance CANNOT be broken down into simpler substances, it is
a. a compound. c. made of one kind of atom.
b. an element. d. both b and c
____ 10. What is the symbol for aluminum?
a. AL c. Au
b. Al d. A
____ 11. The symbol for gold is
a. Au. c. Gl.
b. Al. d. Go.
____ 12. Which of the following is a mixture?
a. carbon dioxide c. silicon dioxide
b. silicon d. sand
____ 13. Which of the following is malleable?
a. glass c. ice
b. pottery d. gold
____ 14. Which of the following has the highest viscosity?
a. corn syrup c. water
b. milk d. orange juice
____ 15. A material that is malleable and conducts electricity is most likely
a. wood. c. a metal.
b. ice. d. motor oil.
____ 16. What method can be used to separate parts of a liquid mixture when the entire mixture can pass through a filter?
a. filtration c. straining
b. distillation d. screening
____ 17. When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the following does NOT change?
a. shape c. volume
b. temperature d. composition
____ 18. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. sawing a piece of wood in half
b. burning a piece of wood
c. rust forming on an iron fence
d. a copper roof changing color from red to green
____ 19. A substance that has high reactivity
a. easily combines chemically with other substances.
b. burns in the presence of water.
c. displaces dissolved oxygen.
d. has a high boiling point.
____ 20. Which of the following is NOT a clue that a chemical change has occurred?
a. change in color c. formation of a precipitate
b. production of a gas d. change in shape
____ 21. Which of the following is a clue of a chemical change?
a. iron changes color when heated
b. gas bubbles form in boiling water
c. balls of wax form when melted wax is poured into ice water
d. a gas forms when vinegar and baking soda are mixed
Figure 3-1
____ 22. In which of the substances in Figure 3-1 are the forces of attraction among the particles so weak that they can be ignored under ordinary conditions?
a. Substance A c. Substance C
b. Substance B d. all of the above
____ 23. Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?
a. temperature c. number of particles
b. volume d. all of the above
____ 24. If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will change from 70 kilopascals to
a. 35 kilopascals. c. 140 kilopascals.
b. 105 kilopascals. d. 560 kilopascals.
____ 25. What type of change occurs when water changes from a solid to a liquid?
a. a phase change c. an irreversible change
b. a physical change d. both a and b
____ 26. The phase change that is the reverse of condensation is
a. freezing. c. vaporization.
b. sublimation. d. melting.
____ 27. During a phase change, the temperature of a substance
a. increases. c. does not change.
b. decreases. d. increases or decreases.
____ 28. Which of the following statements about ice melting is true?
a. Energy flows from the ice to its surroundings.
b. Water molecules move from their fixed position.
c. Water molecules lose energy.
d. The temperature of the ice increases as it melts.
____ 29. The phase change in which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas is
a. deposition. c. condensation.
b. sublimation. d. vaporization.
____ 30. The phase change in which a substance changes from a gas directly to a solid is
a. condensation. c. deposition.
b. vaporization. d. sublimation.
____ 31. Democritus thought that matter was made of tiny particles
a. of earth, air, fire, and water.
b. that could not be divided.
c. that could be divided.
d. that were all round and smooth.
____ 32. If 2 grams of element X combine with 4 grams of element Y to form compound XY, how many grams of element Y would combine with 14 grams of X to form the same compound?
a. 7 grams c. 21 grams
b. 14 grams d. 28 grams
____ 33. Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. All elements are composed of atoms.
b. All atoms of the same element have the same mass.
c. Atoms contain subatomic particles.
d. A compound contains atoms of more than one element.
____ 34. Which of the following most accurately represents John Dalton’s model of the atom?
a. a tiny, solid sphere with an unpredictable mass for a given element
b. a hollow sphere with a dense nucleus
c. a tiny, solid sphere with a predictable mass for a given element
d. a sphere that is hollow throughout
____ 35. J. J. Thomson’s experiments provided evidence that an atom
a. is the smallest particle of matter.
b. contains negatively charged particles.
c. has a negative charge.
d. has a positive charge.
____ 36. Rutherford’s gold foil experiment provided evidence for which of the following statements?
a. Negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout an atom.
b. Alpha particles have a positive charge.
c. Gold is not as dense as previously thought.
d. There is a dense, positively charged mass in the center of an atom.
____ 37. Which statement best describes Rutherford’s model of the atom?
a. It is like an avocado with the pit representing the nucleus.
b. It is like an aquarium with swimming fish representing positive charges.
c. It is like a fried egg with the yolk representing the nucleus.
d. It is like a huge stadium with a positively charged marble at the center.
____ 38. Which statement about subatomic particles is true?
a. Protons, neutrons, and electrons all have about the same mass.
b. Unlike protons or neutrons, electrons have no mass.
c. Neutrons have no charge and no mass.
d. An electron has far less mass than either a proton or neutron.
____ 39. Which of the following is unique for any given element?
a. the number of neutrons c. the number of protons
b. the charge on the electrons d. the mass of a neutron
____ 40. In Niels Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons move
a. like balls rolling down a hill. c. like popcorn in a popcorn popper.
b. like planets orbiting the sun. d. like beach balls on water waves.
____ 41. How was Bohr’s atomic model similar to Rutherford’s model?
a. It assigned energy levels to electrons.
b. It described electron position in terms of the electron cloud model.
c. It described how electrons gain or lose energy.
d. It described a nucleus surrounded by a large volume of space.
____ 42. What does the electron cloud model describe?
a. the most likely locations of electrons in atoms
b. the precise locations of electrons in atoms
c. the number of electrons in an atom
d. the mass of the electrons in an atom
____ 43. Which statement about electrons and atomic orbitals is NOT true?
a. An electron has the same amount of energy in all orbitals.
b. An orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons.
c. An electron cloud represents all the orbitals in an atom.
d. An atom’s lowest energy level has only one orbital.
____ 44. Mendeleev arranged the known chemical elements in a table according to increasing
a. atomic number. c. number of protons.
b. number of electrons. d. mass.
____ 45. Moving from left to right across a row of the periodic table, which of the following values increases by exactly one from element to element?
a. isotope number c. atomic mass unit
b. atomic number d. mass number
____ 46. One twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom is used to define a(an)
a. atomic number. c. mass number.
b. atomic mass. d. atomic mass unit.
____ 47. Two highly reactive elements in Period 2 are the metal lithium and the
a. metalloid arsenic. c. nonmetal fluorine.
b. nonmetal selenium. d. nonmetal krypton.
____ 48. A member of the boron family has three valence electrons, while a member of the nitrogen family has
a. none. c. four.
b. five. d. three.
____ 49. Which of the following Group 1A elements is the most reactive?
a. Cs (cesium) c. K (potassium)
b. Li (lithium) d. Na (sodium)
____ 50. Among the alkali metals, the tendency to react with other substances
a. does not vary among the members of the group.
b. increases from top to bottom within the group.
c. varies in an unpredictable way within the group.
d. decreases from top to bottom within the group.
____ 51. Which of the following gases emit colors when an electric current is applied?
a. hydrogen and helium c. fluorine and chlorine
b. argon and krypton d. oxygen and nitrogen
____ 52. To keep them from reacting, some highly reactive elements are stored in
a. water. c. liquid mercury.
b. pure oxygen. d. argon.
____ 53. Typically, atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve
a. an exchange of energy.
b. ionization.
c. a stable electron configuration.
d. vaporization.
Figure 6-1
____ 54. Study the electron dot diagrams for lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon in Figure 6-1. Choose the statement that correctly identifies the most stable of the elements.
a. Lithium is the most stable element because it has to lose only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
b. Carbon is the most stable element because it can form four bonds.
c. Fluorine is the most stable element because it has to gain only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
d. Neon is the most stable element because its highest occupied energy level is filled.
____ 55. Ionization energies tend to
a. decrease from left to right across a period.
b. increase from the top of a group to the bottom.
c. increase from left to right across a period.
d. decrease from the bottom of a group to the top.
____ 56. The formation of an ionic bond involves the
a. transfer of electrons. c. transfer of protons.
b. transfer of neutrons. d. sharing of electrons.
____ 57. Because water molecules are polar and carbon dioxide molecules are nonpolar,
a. water has a lower boiling point than carbon dioxide does.
b. attractions between water molecules are weaker than attractions between carbon dioxide molecules.
c. carbon dioxide cannot exist as a solid.
d. water has a higher boiling point than carbon dioxide does.
____ 58. The elements most likely to form more than one type of ion are the
a. transition metals. c. halogens.
b. alkali metals. d. alkaline earth metals.
____ 59. Fluorine, F, forms a binary ionic compound with lithium, Li. What is the name of this compound?
a. fluorine lithide c. lithium fluorine
b. lithium fluoride d. fluorine lithium
____ 60. Alkali metals, alkaline earth metals, and aluminum all form ions with positive charges equal to the
a. atomic number. c. period.
b. group number. d. atomic mass.
____ 61. In the name carbon dioxide, the prefix of the second word indicates that a molecule of carbon dioxide contains
a. two carbon atoms. c. a polyatomic ion.
b. two oxygen atoms. d. an ionic bond.
____ 62. The substances that undergo change in a chemical reaction are called
a. reactants. c. coefficients.
b. products. d. elements.
____ 63. Hydrochloric acid, HCl, is added to solid NaOH. After the reaction is complete, NaCl dissolved in water remains. What are the products of this chemical reaction?
a. NaOH and HCl c. HCl and NaCl
b. NaOH and H2O d. NaCl and H2O
____ 64. How many grams of CO2 are in 2.1 mol of the compound?
a. 21.0 g c. 66.0 g
b. 44.0 g d. 92.4 g
____ 65. When magnesium carbonate, MgCO2, reacts with nitric acid, HNO3, magnesium nitrate and carbonic acid form. Carbonic acid then breaks down into water and carbon dioxide. Which two types of reactions take place in this process?
a. synthesis and decomposition
b. single-replacement and combustion
c. double-replacement and decomposition
d. double-replacement and combustion
____ 66. In a chemical reaction, an iron atom became the ion Fe2+. What happened to the iron atom?
a. It lost electrons and was oxidized.
b. It lost electrons and was reduced.
c. It gained electrons and was oxidized.
d. It gained electrons and was reduced.
____ 67. In terms of energy, how would you classify the following chemical reaction?
2Cu + O2 ® 2CuO + 315 kJ
a. endothermic
b. exothermic
c. both endothermic and exothermic
d. neither endothermic nor exothermic
____ 68. In general, if the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased, the reaction rate
a. increases. c. remains the same.
b. decreases. d. cannot be predicted.
____ 69. The equation 2NO2 « N2O4 shows a system
a. in chemical equilibrium.
b. in physical equilibrium.
c. that does not reach equilibrium.
d. that does not change.
Figure 7-1
____ 70. The reaction in Figure 7-1 shows the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen in the Haber process. What will be the effect on the equilibrium if the temperature is increased and some of the ammonia is removed from the system?
a. More ammonia will definitely form.
b. More reactants will definitely form.
c. The changes definitely will have no overall effect on the reaction.
d. Any effect will depend on the amount of change of temperature and concentration.
____ 71. One way to determine the degree of saturation of a solid-liquid solution is to drop a crystal of the solute into the solution. If the crystal sits at the bottom of the container, the solution is
a. saturated. c. supersaturated.
b. unsaturated. d. concentrated.
____ 72. To calculate the molarity of a solution, you need to know the moles of solute and the
a. volume of the solvent. c. mass of the solution.
b. volume of the solution. d. volume of the solute.
____ 73. A base is defined as a compound that produces
a. hydroxide ions in solution. c. hydronium ions in solution.
b. hydrogen ions in solution. d. sodium ions in solution.
____ 74. The products of the neutralization reaction between hydrochloric acid and magnesium hydroxide are
a. MgCl and H2O. c. HCl and MgOH.
b. MgCl2 and H2O. d. HCl and Mg(OH)2.
____ 75. An acid can be defined as
a. a proton acceptor.
b. a proton donor.
c. neither a proton donor nor a proton acceptor.
d. both a proton donor and a proton acceptor.
____ 76. What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?
a. radioactivity c. decomposition
b. oxidation d. none of the above
____ 77. Which of the following is NOT a step in the operation of a Geiger counter?
a. Nuclear radiation ionizes gas in a tube.
b. Ionized gas produces an electric current.
c. Magnets cause the ions to conduct electricity.
d. The electric current is detected and measured.
____ 78. The half-life of a radioisotope is the amount of time it takes for
a. half the sample to decay.
b. all the sample to decay.
c. the age of an artifact to be calculated.
d. detectable radiation to be absorbed by a sample.
____ 79. Transmutation involves
a. nuclear change.
b. chemical change.
c. both a nuclear change and a chemical change.
d. neither a nuclear nor a chemical change.
____ 80. Which of the following is NOT an example of a transmutation?
a. Uranium-238 emits an alpha particle and forms thorium-234.
b. Uranium-238 is bombarded with a neutron to produce uranium-239.
c. Potassium-38 emits a beta particle and forms argon-38.
d. Plutonium-239 is bombarded with two neutrons to produce americium-241 and a beta particle.
____ 81. When curium-242 is bombarded with an alpha particle, two products are formed, one of which is a neutron. What is the other product?
a. californium-246 c. californium-247
b. californium-245 d. plutonium-239
____ 82. Which of the following is an advantage of using nuclear power plants to produce electricity?
a. Nuclear power plants do not pollute the air.
b. Nuclear power plants produce wastes that are easy to dispose of.
c. Nuclear power plants produce more stable wastes compared to fossil fuel combustion.
d. all of the above
____ 83. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a fusion reaction instead of a fission reaction to produce energy?
a. Workers are not in as much danger from radiation.
b. Hydrogen is used, and hydrogen is easily obtained from water.
c. No harmful waste products are produced.
d. Fusion reactors require less energy than fission reactors do.
Figure 11-1
____ 84. Examine Figure 11-1. If you were standing under the tree, which object would appear to be moving?
a. the tree c. the boy
b. the airplane d. the building
____ 85. One kilometer equals 1000 meters. What does the prefix kilo- mean?
a. 1 c. 100
b. 10 d. 1000
____ 86. A ball is rolled uphill a distance of 5 meters before it slows, stops, and begins to roll back. The ball rolls downhill 9 meters before coming to rest against a tree. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement?
a. 4 meters c. 14 meters
b. 9 meters d. 45 meters
____ 87. Instantaneous speed is measured
a. at the starting point.
b. when the object reaches its destination.
c. at a particular instant.
d. over the duration of the trip.
____ 88. A river current has a velocity of 5 km/h relative to the shore, and a boat moves in the same direction as the current at 5 km/h relative to the river. How can the velocity of the boat relative to the shore be calculated?
a. by subtracting the river current vector from the boat’s velocity vector
b. by dividing the river current vector by the boat’s velocity vector
c. by multiplying the vectors
d. by adding the vectors
____ 89. The rate at which velocity changes is called
a. speed. c. acceleration.
b. vectors. d. motion.
____ 90. Which example identifies a change in motion that produces acceleration?
a. a speed skater moving at a constant speed on a straight track
b. a ball moving at a constant speed around a circular track
c. a particle moving in a vacuum at constant velocity
d. a vehicle moving down the street at a steady speed
____ 91. Objects in free fall near the surface of the Earth experience
a. constant speed. c. constant acceleration.
b. constant velocity. d. constant distance.
____ 92. Which example describes constant acceleration due ONLY to a change in direction?
a. increasing speed while traveling around a curve
b. an object at rest
c. traveling around a circular track
d. an object in free fall
____ 93. A speed-time graph shows that a car moves at 10 m/s for 10 s. The car’s speed then steadily decreases until it comes to a stop at 30 s. Which of the following describes the slope of the speed-time graph from 10 s to 30 s?
a. linear, horizontal c. linear, sloping downward
b. curved, upward d. linear, sloping upward
____ 94. A train approaching a crossing changes speed from 25 m/s to 10 m/s in 240 s. How can the train’s acceleration be described?
a. The train’s acceleration is positive.
b. The train is not accelerating.
c. The train will come to rest in 6 minutes.
d. The train’s acceleration is negative.
____ 95. When a pair of balanced forces acts on an object, the net force that results is
a. greater in size than both forces combined.
b. greater in size than one of the forces.
c. equal in size to one of the forces.
d. equal to zero.
____ 96. The forces acting on a falling leaf are
a. air resistance and fluid friction. c. gravity and static friction.
b. gravity and air resistance. d. weight and rolling friction.
____ 97. Newton’s third law of motion describes
a. action and reaction forces. c. centripetal forces.
b. balanced forces. d. net force.
____ 98. What is conserved when two objects collide in a closed system?
a. acceleration c. speed
b. momentum d. velocity
____ 99. What is the momentum of a 50-kilogram ice skater gliding across the ice at a speed of 5 m/s?
a. 10 c. 50 kg
b. 500 kg·m/s d. 250 kg·m/s
____ 100. Which universal force acts only on the protons and neutrons in a nucleus?
a. electric c. magnetic
b. gravitational d. strong nuclear
____ 101. The force that keeps an object moving in a circle is called
a. centripetal force. c. inertia.
b. fluid friction. d. momentum.
____ 102. A force acting on an object does no work if
a. a machine is used to move the object.
b. the force is not in the direction of the object’s motion.
c. the force is greater than the force of friction.
d. the object accelerates.
____ 103. If you perform 40 joules of work lifting a 10-N box from the floor to a shelf, how high is the shelf?
a. 0.3 m c. 4.0 m
b. 20 m d. 400 m
____ 104. If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weights 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?
a. 0.1 c. 360
b. 10 d. 16,000
____ 105. A 120-m long ski lift carries skiers from a station at the foot of a slope to a second station 40 m above. What is the IMA of the lift?
a. 0.3 c. 40
b. 3 d. 160
____ 106. The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100 percent because
a. a machine cannot have an IMA greater than 1.
b. some work input is lost to friction.
c. the work input is too small.
d. the work output is too great.
____ 107. The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is found by
a. multiplying the circumference of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
b. dividing the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
c. dividing the radius of the axle by the radius of the wheel.
d. multiplying the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
____ 108. An example of a compound machine is a
a. crowbar. c. ramp.
b. bicycle. d. seesaw.
____ 109. A machine is classified as a compound machine if it
a. has moving parts.
b. has an IMA greater than 1.
c. is made up of two or more simple machines that operate together.
d. is very efficient.
____ 110. What is transferred by a force moving an object through a distance?
a. force c. motion
b. mass d. energy
____ 111. A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat’s gravitational potential energy relative to the floor if the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2?
a. 7 J c. 29 J
b. 12 J d. 118 J
____ 112. Which of the following increases when an object becomes warmer?
a. chemical energy
b. elastic potential energy
c. nuclear energy
d. thermal energy
____ 113. The total potential and kinetic energy of all the microscopic particles in an object make up its
a. chemical energy. c. nuclear energy.
b. electric energy. d. thermal energy.
____ 114. Walking converts what type of energy into mechanical energy?
a. chemical c. nuclear
b. electromagnetic d. thermal
____ 115. Nuclear power plants are designed to convert nuclear energy into what type of energy?
a. chemical c. geothermal
b. electrical d. mechanical
____ 116. If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, then which of the following statements is true?
a. The total mechanical energy of the system increases.
b. Potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy but not vice versa.
c. (KE+ PE)beginning = (KE + PE)end
d. all of the above
____ 117. Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in a direction parallel to the wave’s motion?
a. a transverse wave c. a longitudinal wave
b. a surface wave d. none of the above
____ 118. When a surfer rides an ocean wave on her surfboard, she is actually riding on
a. a crest that is toppling over. c. the rest position of the wave.
b. a trough of the wave. d. a region of rarefaction.
Figure 17-1
____ 119. Figure 17-1 shows a wave movement during 1 second. What is the frequency of this wave?
a. 2 hertz c. 0.5 second
b. 2 meters/second d. 1 hertz
____ 120. A period is the length of time it takes for
a. a disturbance to start a wave.
b. two complete wavelengths to pass a fixed point.
c. a wave to travel the length of a rope.
d. one complete wavelength to pass a fixed point.
____ 121. To determine the speed of a wave, you would use which of the following formulas?
a. speed = frequency ´ amplitude c. speed = wavelength ´ amplitude
b. speed = wavelength ´ frequency d. speed = wavelength ´ period
____ 122. To what is amplitude related?
a. the amount of energy carried by the wave
b. the maximum displacement from the rest position
c. neither A nor B
d. both A and B
____ 123. For refraction to occur in a wave, the wave must
a. strike an obstacle larger than the wavelength.
b. change direction within a medium.
c. enter a new medium at an angle.
d. enter a new medium head-on.
____ 124. In refraction, when a wave travels from one medium to another, it
a. changes speeds. c. always moves in the same direction.
b. stays in step. d. travels in the opposite direction.
____ 125. Which wave will probably be diffracted the most by an obstacle?
a. a longitudinal wave
b. the wave with the highest amplitude
c. the wave with the longest wavelength
d. the wave that strikes a solid barrier with the slowest speed
____ 126. In which medium does sound travel the fastest?
a. salt water c. air
b. fresh water d. cast iron
____ 127. The part of the ear that sends coded nerve signals to the brain is
a. the outer ear. c. the middle ear.
b. the inner ear. d. the eardrum.
____ 128. An electromagnetic wave in a vacuum has a wavelength of 0.07 m. What is its frequency?
a. c.
b. d.
____ 129. The visible light spectrum ranges between
a. radar waves and X-rays.
b. television waves and infrared rays.
c. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays.
d. ultraviolet rays and gamma rays.
____ 130. X-ray photographs show softer tissue
a. as invisible.
b. as dark, highly exposed areas.
c. the same as dense bones.
d. as bright white areas.
____ 131. A translucent material
a. scatters some light. c. absorbs all light.
b. transmits all light. d. reflects all light.
____ 132. What an object is made of and the color of light that strikes it determine the
a. apparent color of the object.
b. transparency of the object.
c. opacity of the object.
d. translucence of the object.
____ 133. Blue light and yellow light combine to produce white light because
a. they absorb each other’s wavelengths.
b. blue, yellow, and white are primary colors.
c. they are complementary colors of light.
d. they are both primary colors of light.
____ 134. The primary colors of light are
a. green, blue, and black.
b. cyan, magenta, and yellow.
c. red, yellow, and blue.
d. blue, green, and red.
____ 135. Which of the following is NOT true regarding neon lights?
a. Light is emitted as electrons move through a gas in a tube.
b. All neon lights are colored by the color of the tubing.
c. Neon lights may contain other gases, such as helium or krypton.
d. Each kind of gas produces its own distinctive color.
____ 136. Which kind of light is used to carry information through optical fibers?
a. incandescent c. sodium-vapor light
b. fluorescent d. laser
____ 137. A mirror with a flat surface is a
a. plane mirror. c. concave mirror.
b. convex mirror. d. virtual mirror.
____ 138. In a plane mirror, reflected light rays appear to come from
a. in front of the mirror.
b. an angle above the mirror.
c. a distance behind the observer.
d. behind the mirror.
Figure 19-1
____ 139. What is the point called at which the reflected rays intersect in Figure 19-1?
a. virtual image c. focal point
b. plane image d. illumination point
____ 140. A convex mirror can form
a. both virtual and real images. c. only virtual images.
b. only real images. d. none of the above
____ 141. Suppose a light ray traveling in air passes sideways through a glass of water and comes out the other side. How many times will the light ray refract?
a. one time; through the water
b. two times; through the glass and the water
c. three times; through glass, water, and glass again
d. four times; through glass, water, glass, and air
____ 142. A concave lens can only form a
a. real image. c. virtual image.
b. reversed image. d. magnified image.
____ 143. Which statement is correct regarding a refracting telescope?
a. It produces an enlarged real image.
b. It produces an enlarged virtual image.
c. It produces a reduced-size image.
d. It produces a small, upside-down image.
____ 144. What must be done to a film camera to bring an object into focus on the film?
a. The lens must be moved toward or away from the film.
b. The diaphragm must be closed.
c. The film must be coated with a light-sensitive chemical.
d. The film must be developed and printed.
____ 145. What is the function of a diaphragm in a film camera?
a. It directs the image to the viewfinder.
b. It focuses incoming light rays.
c. It opens the shutter.
d. It controls the amount of light passing into the film camera.
____ 146. The lens of the human eye focuses light by
a. changing its index of refraction.
b. controlling the amount of light entering the eye.
c. changing color.
d. changing shape.
____ 147. Which of the following correctly describes the path that light takes when it enters the eye?
a. cornea, pupil, lens, retina c. lens, cornea, pupil, retina
b. pupil, cornea, lens, retina d. retina, lens, cornea, pupil
____ 148. How is the iris of an eye similar to the diaphragm of a film camera?
a. They both control the amount of light passing through.
b. They both focus light rays.
c. They both produce an upside-down image.
d. They both control the movement of the lens.
____ 149. The two layers that make up the lithosphere are the
a. upper mantle and lower mantle.
b. oceanic crust and continental crust.
c. inner core and outer core.
d. crust and upper mantle.
____ 150. The three main layers of Earth’s interior are the
a. crust, core, and lithosphere.
b. crust, mantle, and core.
c. mantle, inner core, and outer core.
d. crust, mantle, and asthenosphere.
____ 151. A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a crystal structure and a characteristic chemical composition is a
a. rock. c. mineral.
b. fossil. d. piece of granite.
____ 152. The hypothesis that the continents move slowly over Earth’s surface and once were joined into one supercontinent is called
a. plate tectonics. c. sea-floor spreading.
b. continental drift. d. subduction.
____ 153. The heat that drives mantle convection comes from the gradual cooling of Earth’s interior and
a. the sun. c. sea-floor spreading.
b. the decay of radioactive isotopes. d. trenches.
____ 154. What is a break in a rock mass along which movement occurs?
a. fold c. fault
b. earthquake d. epicenter
____ 155. What determines whether a volcano erupts quietly or explosively?
a. the size of the volcano
b. the age of the volcano
c. the characteristics of the magma
d. the magnitude of nearby earthquakes
____ 156. Composite volcanoes are produced by
a. quiet eruptions of lava.
b. explosive eruptions of lava and ash.
c. explosive eruptions of ash and cinders.
d. quiet eruptions that alternate with explosive eruptions.
____ 157. A steep-sided volcano formed entirely of ash and cinders is a
a. shield volcano. c. cinder cone.
b. composite volcano. d. hot spot.
____ 158. Which processes are involved in erosion?
a. precipitation, evaporation, and condensation
b. weathering, runoff, and transpiration
c. weathering, evaporation, and runoff
d. weathering, the force of gravity, and wind
____ 159. Which of the following is an example of erosion?
a. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the force of gravity
b. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the action of wind
c. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the action of water
d. all of the above
____ 160. Which of the following rock types and conditions would result in the highest rate of chemical weathering?
a. granite in a cold and dry area c. slate in a hot and rainy area
b. limestone in a hot and rainy area d. granite in a hot and dry area
____ 161. A sediment deposit formed when a stream flows into a lake or the ocean is called a(an)
a. alluvial fan. c. meander.
b. delta. d. natural levee.
____ 162. The portion of a stream that flows through gently sloping flood plains is often characterized by
a. V-shaped valleys and waterfalls. c. meanders and oxbow lakes.
b. steep valleys and rapids. d. meanders and waterfalls.
____ 163. Caves are formed by erosion from
a. glaciers. c. wind.
b. streams. d. groundwater.
____ 164. What pyramid-shaped glacial formation is a combination of several connected ridges?
a. a horn c. a moraine
b. a U-shaped valley d. a cirque
____ 165. Deposits formed from windblown sand are called
a. moraines. c. dunes.
b. loess. d. cirques.
____ 166. Why do most ocean organisms live above a water depth of 500 meters?
a. Pressure below that depth is too great.
b. Temperature below that depth is too high.
c. Pressure below that depth is too low.
d. Light below that depth is too bright.
____ 167. Geologists could use which of the following to compare the age of sedimentary rock layers in Bryce Canyon with sedimentary rock layers in the Grand Canyon?
a. radioactive isotopes c. relative dating
b. index fossils d. all of the above
____ 168. Most weather takes place in the
a. stratosphere. c. troposphere.
b. thermosphere. d. mesosphere.
____ 169. The ozone layer is located in the
a. lower troposphere. c. upper ionosphere.
b. lower thermosphere. d. upper stratosphere.
____ 170. Which of the following lists all the zones in the correct order, starting at the North Pole and ending at the South Pole?
a. polar, temperate, tropic, polar
b. polar, temperate, tropic, temperate, polar
c. polar, tropic, temperate, polar
d. polar, tropic, temperate, tropic, polar
____ 171. A cloud is a dense, visible mass of
a. tiny water droplets. c. water vapor.
b. ice crystals. d. both (a) and (b)
____ 172. Low, flat layers of clouds that often cover much of the sky and produce steady and widespread rain are
a. cumulonimbus clouds. c. nimbostratus clouds.
b. cirrus clouds. d. altostratus clouds.
____ 173. Round, solid pieces of ice more than 5 millimeters in diameter fall as
a. hail. c. snow.
b. sleet. d. freezing rain.
____ 174. Which of the following air masses forms over land north of 50° north latitude?
a. maritime polar c. continental polar
b. temperate continental d. continental tropical
____ 175. Which of the following is a characteristic of an anticyclone?
a. has a center of high pressure
b. has clockwise winds in the Northern Hemisphere
c. is generally associated with clear weather
d. all of the above
Figure 24-1
____ 176. The symbol for Front C in Figure 24-1 represents a(n)
a. cold front. c. warm front.
b. occluded front. d. stationary front.
____ 177. An example of a long-term climate change that occurs naturally is
a. an ice age. c. global warming.
b. an El Niño. d. the greenhouse effect.
____ 178. In a diagram depicting the solar system as heliocentric, what is located at the center?
a. Earth c. the moon
b. the sun d. Mars
____ 179. The orbit of a planet around the sun is a(an)
a. ellipse. c. circle.
b. straight line. d. parabola.
____ 180. Which of the following helps explain why the planets remain in motion around the sun?
a. density c. inertia
b. gravity d. both (b) and (c)
____ 181. Who was the first American in space?
a. Yuri Gargarin c. Chuck Yeager
b. Alan Shepard d. Neil Armstrong
____ 182. Why does Earth’s moon have no atmosphere?
a. The average temperature is too high.
b. There are no plants to release oxygen.
c. The moon is too far from Earth.
d. The moon’s gravity is too weak to hold onto gas molecules.
____ 183. Ocean tides are the result of
a. the rotation of Earth.
b. the sun’s gravitational pull on Earth.
c. changes in Earth’s orbital position around the sun.
d. differences in both the sun’s and moon’s gravitational pull on Earth.
____ 184. The four terrestrial planets are so called because they
a. are the nearest planets to Earth.
b. were all once part of Earth.
c. are similar in structure to Earth.
d. can all be seen from Earth without a telescope.
____ 185. Which of the gas giants has the largest diameter?
a. Jupiter c. Saturn
b. Uranus d. Neptune
____ 186. Comets are made mostly of
a. iron. c. hydrogen and helium.
b. ice and rock. d. methane.
____ 187. Which of the following is a wide belt of objects that extends beyond Pluto's orbit?
a. the asteroid belt c. the Kuiper belt
b. the Oort cloud d. none of the above
____ 188. According to the nebular theory, the solar system formed from
a. accretion of protoplanets. c. colliding planetesimals.
b. a large, thin cloud of dust and gas. d. all of the above
____ 189. Which of the following statements explains why the terrestrial planets are small and rocky instead of large and less dense like the gas giants?
a. The inner planets were exposed to much higher temperatures.
b. Ice-forming compounds vaporize at high temperatures.
c. Rock-forming materials can condense at high temperatures.
d. all of the above
____ 190. The sun remains stable over time because
a. its supply of hydrogen is inexhaustible.
b. the product of fusion, helium, is a stable element.
c. the inward pull of gravity and outward push of thermal pressure are balanced.
d. nuclear fusion is a stabilizing process.
____ 191. The parallax of a star is observed because
a. all stars have the same apparent brightness.
b. parallax increases with distance.
c. stars do not move.
d. the observer moves.
____ 192. Astronomers classify stars according to their
a. distance from Earth. c. age and parallax.
b. color, size, and absolute brightness. d. all of the above
____ 193. A hot, bright star would appear in which section of an H-R diagram?
a. lower left c. upper left
b. upper right d. lower right
____ 194. Which kind of star is most likely to spend the longest time on the main sequence?
a. a low-mass red star c. a high-mass blue star
b. a yellow star like the sun d. a bright white star
____ 195. Why is studying star clusters useful?
a. because there is such a large diversity of stars in a cluster
b. because they are about the same age and distance from Earth
c. because they are all about the same size and temperature
d. because all of them are always young, bright stars
____ 196. A large group of older stars would be found in which of the following star clusters?
a. open cluster c. globular cluster
b. association d. both (a) and (b)
____ 197. Galaxies are classified into four groups based on their
a. shapes. c. number of stars.
b. sizes. d. brightness.
____ 198. When the absorption lines of a galaxy shift toward the blue end of the spectrum, it means that the galaxy is
a. moving away from Earth. c. moving closer to Earth.
b. small and young. d. large and old.
____ 199. Hubble’s Law states that the speed at which a galaxy is moving away is proportional to the
a. mass of the galaxy. c. galaxy’s distance from Earth.
b. number of stars in the galaxy. d. age of the galaxy.
____ 200. The big bang theory explains the
a. origin of the universe. c. Doppler effect.
b. life cycle of a star. d. arrangement of constellations.
Short Answer
201. Why do scientists speak at conferences and write articles in scientific journals?
202. What is viscosity?
203. If an atom of an element has a mass number of 32 and 20 neutrons in its nucleus, what is the atomic number of the element?
204. Among the alkaline earth metals in Group 2A, which is more reactive—beryllium (element 4) or strontium (element 38)?
205. Sodium, an alkali metal, and chlorine, a halogen, are both in Period 3 of the periodic table. Which element has a higher ionization energy? Explain your answer.
Figure 7-1
206. In Figure 7-1, both the reactants and the product of the reaction are gases. In this equilibrium, the reaction that produces fewer gas molecules is favored. Explain why increasing the pressure on the reaction favors the formation of ammonia rather than the formation of the reactants.
207. What is a buffer solution?
208. Describe the structure of a film badge that detects radiation.
209. In the equation for acceleration, , how can you describe acceleration if the numerator is negative?
210. What is the direction of the net force on a falling sky diver before she reaches terminal velocity? After she is falling at terminal velocity?
211. How is a pair of scissors a compound machine? Explain your answer.
212. What evidence is there that energy is transferred as a golf club does work on a golf ball?
213. What is the most familiar form of electromagnetic energy?
214. Describe how a wave must enter a new medium in order for refraction to occur.
215. What is the Doppler effect?
216. Why must a microscope slide be made of a transparent material like glass if the glass does not magnify the image?
217. What feature is formed when rocks bend under stress but do not break?
218. Explain why sea breezes occur during the day.
219. Explain the odd and irregular shapes of most asteroids.
220. What are the very bright stars in the upper right of an H-R diagram called?
Problem
221. When iron metal reacts with oxygen, the reaction can form Fe2O3. Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction, and find the number of moles of oxygen that are needed to form 6 mol of Fe2O3.
222. A sample of phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.28 days. If 55 g of this radioisotope remain unchanged after approximately 57 days, what was the mass of the original sample?
223. After 15 minutes, 30 g of a sample of polonium-218 remain unchanged. If the original sample had a mass of 960 g, what is the half-life of polonium-218?
224. A small engine causes a 0.3-kg model airplane to accelerate at a rate of 11 m/s2. What is the net force on the model airplane? Show your work.
225. A 20-N force applied to the handle of a door produces a 44-N output force. What is the AMA of the handle? Show your work.
226. What is the kinetic energy of a 72.0-kg sky diver falling at a terminal velocity of 79.0 m/s? Show your work.
227. A 0.47-kg squirrel jumps from a tree branch that is 3.5 m high to the top of a bird feeder that is 1.2 m high. What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the squirrel? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.) Show your work.
228. A small dog is trained to jump straight up a distance of 1.2 m. How much kinetic energy does the 7.2-kg dog need to jump this high? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.) Show your work.
229. In a nuclear reaction, an amount of matter having a mass of 1.0 ´ 10–12 kg is converted into energy, which is released. How much energy is released? (The speed of light is 3.0 ´ 108 m/s.) Show your work.
230. A communications satellite transmits a radio wave at a frequency of 5.0 109 Hz. What is the signal’s wavelength? Assume the wave travels in a vacuum. Show your work.
Essay
231. Explain the path followed by carbon-14 atoms from when they form in the atmosphere until they are found in compounds in the human body.
232. How can earthquakes be used to map the location of a plate boundary?
233. Your teacher provides you with two white mineral samples. One is quartz and one is calcite. Describe the tests you could use to identify the samples.
234. Describe the journey of a water molecule through the water cycle.
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. What are the building blocks of all matter?
a. forces c. magnetic fields
b. atoms d. kinetic and potential energy
____ 2. What is a statement that summarizes a pattern found in nature?
a. a scientific law c. a scientific theory
b. a fact d. a hypothesis
____ 3. Which of the following is an example of a safe laboratory procedure?
a. tying back long hair and loose clothing
b. eating or drinking from laboratory glassware
c. touching hot objects with your bare hands
d. testing an odor by directly inhaling the vapor
____ 4. How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?
a. 69 ´ 10–5 c. 0.69 ´ 10–3
b. 6.9 ´ 104 d. 6.9 ´ 10–4
____ 5. Which of the following conversion factors would you use to change 18 kilometers to meters?
a. 1000 m/1 km c. 100 m/1 km
b. 1 km/1000 m d. 1 km/100 m
____ 6. Which of the following clocks offers the most precision?
a. a clock with only one hand to measure the hour
b. a clock with only one hand to measure the minutes
c. a clock with a hand to measure the hour and a hand to measure the minutes
d. a clock with a hand to measure the hour, a hand to measure the minutes, and a hand to measure the seconds
____ 7. What is the relationship in which the ratio of the manipulated variable and the responding variable is constant?
a. inverse proportion c. slope
b. direct proportion d. interdependent
____ 8. How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?
a. They all use different systems of measurement.
b. They all use SI.
c. They communicate through a universal translator.
d. They all must speak French.
____ 9. If an unknown substance CANNOT be broken down into simpler substances, it is
a. a compound. c. made of one kind of atom.
b. an element. d. both b and c
____ 10. What is the symbol for aluminum?
a. AL c. Au
b. Al d. A
____ 11. The symbol for gold is
a. Au. c. Gl.
b. Al. d. Go.
____ 12. Which of the following is a mixture?
a. carbon dioxide c. silicon dioxide
b. silicon d. sand
____ 13. Which of the following is malleable?
a. glass c. ice
b. pottery d. gold
____ 14. Which of the following has the highest viscosity?
a. corn syrup c. water
b. milk d. orange juice
____ 15. A material that is malleable and conducts electricity is most likely
a. wood. c. a metal.
b. ice. d. motor oil.
____ 16. What method can be used to separate parts of a liquid mixture when the entire mixture can pass through a filter?
a. filtration c. straining
b. distillation d. screening
____ 17. When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the following does NOT change?
a. shape c. volume
b. temperature d. composition
____ 18. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. sawing a piece of wood in half
b. burning a piece of wood
c. rust forming on an iron fence
d. a copper roof changing color from red to green
____ 19. A substance that has high reactivity
a. easily combines chemically with other substances.
b. burns in the presence of water.
c. displaces dissolved oxygen.
d. has a high boiling point.
____ 20. Which of the following is NOT a clue that a chemical change has occurred?
a. change in color c. formation of a precipitate
b. production of a gas d. change in shape
____ 21. Which of the following is a clue of a chemical change?
a. iron changes color when heated
b. gas bubbles form in boiling water
c. balls of wax form when melted wax is poured into ice water
d. a gas forms when vinegar and baking soda are mixed
Figure 3-1
____ 22. In which of the substances in Figure 3-1 are the forces of attraction among the particles so weak that they can be ignored under ordinary conditions?
a. Substance A c. Substance C
b. Substance B d. all of the above
____ 23. Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?
a. temperature c. number of particles
b. volume d. all of the above
____ 24. If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will change from 70 kilopascals to
a. 35 kilopascals. c. 140 kilopascals.
b. 105 kilopascals. d. 560 kilopascals.
____ 25. What type of change occurs when water changes from a solid to a liquid?
a. a phase change c. an irreversible change
b. a physical change d. both a and b
____ 26. The phase change that is the reverse of condensation is
a. freezing. c. vaporization.
b. sublimation. d. melting.
____ 27. During a phase change, the temperature of a substance
a. increases. c. does not change.
b. decreases. d. increases or decreases.
____ 28. Which of the following statements about ice melting is true?
a. Energy flows from the ice to its surroundings.
b. Water molecules move from their fixed position.
c. Water molecules lose energy.
d. The temperature of the ice increases as it melts.
____ 29. The phase change in which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas is
a. deposition. c. condensation.
b. sublimation. d. vaporization.
____ 30. The phase change in which a substance changes from a gas directly to a solid is
a. condensation. c. deposition.
b. vaporization. d. sublimation.
____ 31. Democritus thought that matter was made of tiny particles
a. of earth, air, fire, and water.
b. that could not be divided.
c. that could be divided.
d. that were all round and smooth.
____ 32. If 2 grams of element X combine with 4 grams of element Y to form compound XY, how many grams of element Y would combine with 14 grams of X to form the same compound?
a. 7 grams c. 21 grams
b. 14 grams d. 28 grams
____ 33. Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. All elements are composed of atoms.
b. All atoms of the same element have the same mass.
c. Atoms contain subatomic particles.
d. A compound contains atoms of more than one element.
____ 34. Which of the following most accurately represents John Dalton’s model of the atom?
a. a tiny, solid sphere with an unpredictable mass for a given element
b. a hollow sphere with a dense nucleus
c. a tiny, solid sphere with a predictable mass for a given element
d. a sphere that is hollow throughout
____ 35. J. J. Thomson’s experiments provided evidence that an atom
a. is the smallest particle of matter.
b. contains negatively charged particles.
c. has a negative charge.
d. has a positive charge.
____ 36. Rutherford’s gold foil experiment provided evidence for which of the following statements?
a. Negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout an atom.
b. Alpha particles have a positive charge.
c. Gold is not as dense as previously thought.
d. There is a dense, positively charged mass in the center of an atom.
____ 37. Which statement best describes Rutherford’s model of the atom?
a. It is like an avocado with the pit representing the nucleus.
b. It is like an aquarium with swimming fish representing positive charges.
c. It is like a fried egg with the yolk representing the nucleus.
d. It is like a huge stadium with a positively charged marble at the center.
____ 38. Which statement about subatomic particles is true?
a. Protons, neutrons, and electrons all have about the same mass.
b. Unlike protons or neutrons, electrons have no mass.
c. Neutrons have no charge and no mass.
d. An electron has far less mass than either a proton or neutron.
____ 39. Which of the following is unique for any given element?
a. the number of neutrons c. the number of protons
b. the charge on the electrons d. the mass of a neutron
____ 40. In Niels Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons move
a. like balls rolling down a hill. c. like popcorn in a popcorn popper.
b. like planets orbiting the sun. d. like beach balls on water waves.
____ 41. How was Bohr’s atomic model similar to Rutherford’s model?
a. It assigned energy levels to electrons.
b. It described electron position in terms of the electron cloud model.
c. It described how electrons gain or lose energy.
d. It described a nucleus surrounded by a large volume of space.
____ 42. What does the electron cloud model describe?
a. the most likely locations of electrons in atoms
b. the precise locations of electrons in atoms
c. the number of electrons in an atom
d. the mass of the electrons in an atom
____ 43. Which statement about electrons and atomic orbitals is NOT true?
a. An electron has the same amount of energy in all orbitals.
b. An orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons.
c. An electron cloud represents all the orbitals in an atom.
d. An atom’s lowest energy level has only one orbital.
____ 44. Mendeleev arranged the known chemical elements in a table according to increasing
a. atomic number. c. number of protons.
b. number of electrons. d. mass.
____ 45. Moving from left to right across a row of the periodic table, which of the following values increases by exactly one from element to element?
a. isotope number c. atomic mass unit
b. atomic number d. mass number
____ 46. One twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom is used to define a(an)
a. atomic number. c. mass number.
b. atomic mass. d. atomic mass unit.
____ 47. Two highly reactive elements in Period 2 are the metal lithium and the
a. metalloid arsenic. c. nonmetal fluorine.
b. nonmetal selenium. d. nonmetal krypton.
____ 48. A member of the boron family has three valence electrons, while a member of the nitrogen family has
a. none. c. four.
b. five. d. three.
____ 49. Which of the following Group 1A elements is the most reactive?
a. Cs (cesium) c. K (potassium)
b. Li (lithium) d. Na (sodium)
____ 50. Among the alkali metals, the tendency to react with other substances
a. does not vary among the members of the group.
b. increases from top to bottom within the group.
c. varies in an unpredictable way within the group.
d. decreases from top to bottom within the group.
____ 51. Which of the following gases emit colors when an electric current is applied?
a. hydrogen and helium c. fluorine and chlorine
b. argon and krypton d. oxygen and nitrogen
____ 52. To keep them from reacting, some highly reactive elements are stored in
a. water. c. liquid mercury.
b. pure oxygen. d. argon.
____ 53. Typically, atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve
a. an exchange of energy.
b. ionization.
c. a stable electron configuration.
d. vaporization.
Figure 6-1
____ 54. Study the electron dot diagrams for lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon in Figure 6-1. Choose the statement that correctly identifies the most stable of the elements.
a. Lithium is the most stable element because it has to lose only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
b. Carbon is the most stable element because it can form four bonds.
c. Fluorine is the most stable element because it has to gain only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
d. Neon is the most stable element because its highest occupied energy level is filled.
____ 55. Ionization energies tend to
a. decrease from left to right across a period.
b. increase from the top of a group to the bottom.
c. increase from left to right across a period.
d. decrease from the bottom of a group to the top.
____ 56. The formation of an ionic bond involves the
a. transfer of electrons. c. transfer of protons.
b. transfer of neutrons. d. sharing of electrons.
____ 57. Because water molecules are polar and carbon dioxide molecules are nonpolar,
a. water has a lower boiling point than carbon dioxide does.
b. attractions between water molecules are weaker than attractions between carbon dioxide molecules.
c. carbon dioxide cannot exist as a solid.
d. water has a higher boiling point than carbon dioxide does.
____ 58. The elements most likely to form more than one type of ion are the
a. transition metals. c. halogens.
b. alkali metals. d. alkaline earth metals.
____ 59. Fluorine, F, forms a binary ionic compound with lithium, Li. What is the name of this compound?
a. fluorine lithide c. lithium fluorine
b. lithium fluoride d. fluorine lithium
____ 60. Alkali metals, alkaline earth metals, and aluminum all form ions with positive charges equal to the
a. atomic number. c. period.
b. group number. d. atomic mass.
____ 61. In the name carbon dioxide, the prefix of the second word indicates that a molecule of carbon dioxide contains
a. two carbon atoms. c. a polyatomic ion.
b. two oxygen atoms. d. an ionic bond.
____ 62. The substances that undergo change in a chemical reaction are called
a. reactants. c. coefficients.
b. products. d. elements.
____ 63. Hydrochloric acid, HCl, is added to solid NaOH. After the reaction is complete, NaCl dissolved in water remains. What are the products of this chemical reaction?
a. NaOH and HCl c. HCl and NaCl
b. NaOH and H2O d. NaCl and H2O
____ 64. How many grams of CO2 are in 2.1 mol of the compound?
a. 21.0 g c. 66.0 g
b. 44.0 g d. 92.4 g
____ 65. When magnesium carbonate, MgCO2, reacts with nitric acid, HNO3, magnesium nitrate and carbonic acid form. Carbonic acid then breaks down into water and carbon dioxide. Which two types of reactions take place in this process?
a. synthesis and decomposition
b. single-replacement and combustion
c. double-replacement and decomposition
d. double-replacement and combustion
____ 66. In a chemical reaction, an iron atom became the ion Fe2+. What happened to the iron atom?
a. It lost electrons and was oxidized.
b. It lost electrons and was reduced.
c. It gained electrons and was oxidized.
d. It gained electrons and was reduced.
____ 67. In terms of energy, how would you classify the following chemical reaction?
2Cu + O2 ® 2CuO + 315 kJ
a. endothermic
b. exothermic
c. both endothermic and exothermic
d. neither endothermic nor exothermic
____ 68. In general, if the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased, the reaction rate
a. increases. c. remains the same.
b. decreases. d. cannot be predicted.
____ 69. The equation 2NO2 « N2O4 shows a system
a. in chemical equilibrium.
b. in physical equilibrium.
c. that does not reach equilibrium.
d. that does not change.
Figure 7-1
____ 70. The reaction in Figure 7-1 shows the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen in the Haber process. What will be the effect on the equilibrium if the temperature is increased and some of the ammonia is removed from the system?
a. More ammonia will definitely form.
b. More reactants will definitely form.
c. The changes definitely will have no overall effect on the reaction.
d. Any effect will depend on the amount of change of temperature and concentration.
____ 71. One way to determine the degree of saturation of a solid-liquid solution is to drop a crystal of the solute into the solution. If the crystal sits at the bottom of the container, the solution is
a. saturated. c. supersaturated.
b. unsaturated. d. concentrated.
____ 72. To calculate the molarity of a solution, you need to know the moles of solute and the
a. volume of the solvent. c. mass of the solution.
b. volume of the solution. d. volume of the solute.
____ 73. A base is defined as a compound that produces
a. hydroxide ions in solution. c. hydronium ions in solution.
b. hydrogen ions in solution. d. sodium ions in solution.
____ 74. The products of the neutralization reaction between hydrochloric acid and magnesium hydroxide are
a. MgCl and H2O. c. HCl and MgOH.
b. MgCl2 and H2O. d. HCl and Mg(OH)2.
____ 75. An acid can be defined as
a. a proton acceptor.
b. a proton donor.
c. neither a proton donor nor a proton acceptor.
d. both a proton donor and a proton acceptor.
____ 76. What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?
a. radioactivity c. decomposition
b. oxidation d. none of the above
____ 77. Which of the following is NOT a step in the operation of a Geiger counter?
a. Nuclear radiation ionizes gas in a tube.
b. Ionized gas produces an electric current.
c. Magnets cause the ions to conduct electricity.
d. The electric current is detected and measured.
____ 78. The half-life of a radioisotope is the amount of time it takes for
a. half the sample to decay.
b. all the sample to decay.
c. the age of an artifact to be calculated.
d. detectable radiation to be absorbed by a sample.
____ 79. Transmutation involves
a. nuclear change.
b. chemical change.
c. both a nuclear change and a chemical change.
d. neither a nuclear nor a chemical change.
____ 80. Which of the following is NOT an example of a transmutation?
a. Uranium-238 emits an alpha particle and forms thorium-234.
b. Uranium-238 is bombarded with a neutron to produce uranium-239.
c. Potassium-38 emits a beta particle and forms argon-38.
d. Plutonium-239 is bombarded with two neutrons to produce americium-241 and a beta particle.
____ 81. When curium-242 is bombarded with an alpha particle, two products are formed, one of which is a neutron. What is the other product?
a. californium-246 c. californium-247
b. californium-245 d. plutonium-239
____ 82. Which of the following is an advantage of using nuclear power plants to produce electricity?
a. Nuclear power plants do not pollute the air.
b. Nuclear power plants produce wastes that are easy to dispose of.
c. Nuclear power plants produce more stable wastes compared to fossil fuel combustion.
d. all of the above
____ 83. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a fusion reaction instead of a fission reaction to produce energy?
a. Workers are not in as much danger from radiation.
b. Hydrogen is used, and hydrogen is easily obtained from water.
c. No harmful waste products are produced.
d. Fusion reactors require less energy than fission reactors do.
Figure 11-1
____ 84. Examine Figure 11-1. If you were standing under the tree, which object would appear to be moving?
a. the tree c. the boy
b. the airplane d. the building
____ 85. One kilometer equals 1000 meters. What does the prefix kilo- mean?
a. 1 c. 100
b. 10 d. 1000
____ 86. A ball is rolled uphill a distance of 5 meters before it slows, stops, and begins to roll back. The ball rolls downhill 9 meters before coming to rest against a tree. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement?
a. 4 meters c. 14 meters
b. 9 meters d. 45 meters
____ 87. Instantaneous speed is measured
a. at the starting point.
b. when the object reaches its destination.
c. at a particular instant.
d. over the duration of the trip.
____ 88. A river current has a velocity of 5 km/h relative to the shore, and a boat moves in the same direction as the current at 5 km/h relative to the river. How can the velocity of the boat relative to the shore be calculated?
a. by subtracting the river current vector from the boat’s velocity vector
b. by dividing the river current vector by the boat’s velocity vector
c. by multiplying the vectors
d. by adding the vectors
____ 89. The rate at which velocity changes is called
a. speed. c. acceleration.
b. vectors. d. motion.
____ 90. Which example identifies a change in motion that produces acceleration?
a. a speed skater moving at a constant speed on a straight track
b. a ball moving at a constant speed around a circular track
c. a particle moving in a vacuum at constant velocity
d. a vehicle moving down the street at a steady speed
____ 91. Objects in free fall near the surface of the Earth experience
a. constant speed. c. constant acceleration.
b. constant velocity. d. constant distance.
____ 92. Which example describes constant acceleration due ONLY to a change in direction?
a. increasing speed while traveling around a curve
b. an object at rest
c. traveling around a circular track
d. an object in free fall
____ 93. A speed-time graph shows that a car moves at 10 m/s for 10 s. The car’s speed then steadily decreases until it comes to a stop at 30 s. Which of the following describes the slope of the speed-time graph from 10 s to 30 s?
a. linear, horizontal c. linear, sloping downward
b. curved, upward d. linear, sloping upward
____ 94. A train approaching a crossing changes speed from 25 m/s to 10 m/s in 240 s. How can the train’s acceleration be described?
a. The train’s acceleration is positive.
b. The train is not accelerating.
c. The train will come to rest in 6 minutes.
d. The train’s acceleration is negative.
____ 95. When a pair of balanced forces acts on an object, the net force that results is
a. greater in size than both forces combined.
b. greater in size than one of the forces.
c. equal in size to one of the forces.
d. equal to zero.
____ 96. The forces acting on a falling leaf are
a. air resistance and fluid friction. c. gravity and static friction.
b. gravity and air resistance. d. weight and rolling friction.
____ 97. Newton’s third law of motion describes
a. action and reaction forces. c. centripetal forces.
b. balanced forces. d. net force.
____ 98. What is conserved when two objects collide in a closed system?
a. acceleration c. speed
b. momentum d. velocity
____ 99. What is the momentum of a 50-kilogram ice skater gliding across the ice at a speed of 5 m/s?
a. 10 c. 50 kg
b. 500 kg·m/s d. 250 kg·m/s
____ 100. Which universal force acts only on the protons and neutrons in a nucleus?
a. electric c. magnetic
b. gravitational d. strong nuclear
____ 101. The force that keeps an object moving in a circle is called
a. centripetal force. c. inertia.
b. fluid friction. d. momentum.
____ 102. A force acting on an object does no work if
a. a machine is used to move the object.
b. the force is not in the direction of the object’s motion.
c. the force is greater than the force of friction.
d. the object accelerates.
____ 103. If you perform 40 joules of work lifting a 10-N box from the floor to a shelf, how high is the shelf?
a. 0.3 m c. 4.0 m
b. 20 m d. 400 m
____ 104. If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weights 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?
a. 0.1 c. 360
b. 10 d. 16,000
____ 105. A 120-m long ski lift carries skiers from a station at the foot of a slope to a second station 40 m above. What is the IMA of the lift?
a. 0.3 c. 40
b. 3 d. 160
____ 106. The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100 percent because
a. a machine cannot have an IMA greater than 1.
b. some work input is lost to friction.
c. the work input is too small.
d. the work output is too great.
____ 107. The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is found by
a. multiplying the circumference of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
b. dividing the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
c. dividing the radius of the axle by the radius of the wheel.
d. multiplying the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle.
____ 108. An example of a compound machine is a
a. crowbar. c. ramp.
b. bicycle. d. seesaw.
____ 109. A machine is classified as a compound machine if it
a. has moving parts.
b. has an IMA greater than 1.
c. is made up of two or more simple machines that operate together.
d. is very efficient.
____ 110. What is transferred by a force moving an object through a distance?
a. force c. motion
b. mass d. energy
____ 111. A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat’s gravitational potential energy relative to the floor if the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2?
a. 7 J c. 29 J
b. 12 J d. 118 J
____ 112. Which of the following increases when an object becomes warmer?
a. chemical energy
b. elastic potential energy
c. nuclear energy
d. thermal energy
____ 113. The total potential and kinetic energy of all the microscopic particles in an object make up its
a. chemical energy. c. nuclear energy.
b. electric energy. d. thermal energy.
____ 114. Walking converts what type of energy into mechanical energy?
a. chemical c. nuclear
b. electromagnetic d. thermal
____ 115. Nuclear power plants are designed to convert nuclear energy into what type of energy?
a. chemical c. geothermal
b. electrical d. mechanical
____ 116. If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, then which of the following statements is true?
a. The total mechanical energy of the system increases.
b. Potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy but not vice versa.
c. (KE+ PE)beginning = (KE + PE)end
d. all of the above
____ 117. Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in a direction parallel to the wave’s motion?
a. a transverse wave c. a longitudinal wave
b. a surface wave d. none of the above
____ 118. When a surfer rides an ocean wave on her surfboard, she is actually riding on
a. a crest that is toppling over. c. the rest position of the wave.
b. a trough of the wave. d. a region of rarefaction.
Figure 17-1
____ 119. Figure 17-1 shows a wave movement during 1 second. What is the frequency of this wave?
a. 2 hertz c. 0.5 second
b. 2 meters/second d. 1 hertz
____ 120. A period is the length of time it takes for
a. a disturbance to start a wave.
b. two complete wavelengths to pass a fixed point.
c. a wave to travel the length of a rope.
d. one complete wavelength to pass a fixed point.
____ 121. To determine the speed of a wave, you would use which of the following formulas?
a. speed = frequency ´ amplitude c. speed = wavelength ´ amplitude
b. speed = wavelength ´ frequency d. speed = wavelength ´ period
____ 122. To what is amplitude related?
a. the amount of energy carried by the wave
b. the maximum displacement from the rest position
c. neither A nor B
d. both A and B
____ 123. For refraction to occur in a wave, the wave must
a. strike an obstacle larger than the wavelength.
b. change direction within a medium.
c. enter a new medium at an angle.
d. enter a new medium head-on.
____ 124. In refraction, when a wave travels from one medium to another, it
a. changes speeds. c. always moves in the same direction.
b. stays in step. d. travels in the opposite direction.
____ 125. Which wave will probably be diffracted the most by an obstacle?
a. a longitudinal wave
b. the wave with the highest amplitude
c. the wave with the longest wavelength
d. the wave that strikes a solid barrier with the slowest speed
____ 126. In which medium does sound travel the fastest?
a. salt water c. air
b. fresh water d. cast iron
____ 127. The part of the ear that sends coded nerve signals to the brain is
a. the outer ear. c. the middle ear.
b. the inner ear. d. the eardrum.
____ 128. An electromagnetic wave in a vacuum has a wavelength of 0.07 m. What is its frequency?
a. c.
b. d.
____ 129. The visible light spectrum ranges between
a. radar waves and X-rays.
b. television waves and infrared rays.
c. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays.
d. ultraviolet rays and gamma rays.
____ 130. X-ray photographs show softer tissue
a. as invisible.
b. as dark, highly exposed areas.
c. the same as dense bones.
d. as bright white areas.
____ 131. A translucent material
a. scatters some light. c. absorbs all light.
b. transmits all light. d. reflects all light.
____ 132. What an object is made of and the color of light that strikes it determine the
a. apparent color of the object.
b. transparency of the object.
c. opacity of the object.
d. translucence of the object.
____ 133. Blue light and yellow light combine to produce white light because
a. they absorb each other’s wavelengths.
b. blue, yellow, and white are primary colors.
c. they are complementary colors of light.
d. they are both primary colors of light.
____ 134. The primary colors of light are
a. green, blue, and black.
b. cyan, magenta, and yellow.
c. red, yellow, and blue.
d. blue, green, and red.
____ 135. Which of the following is NOT true regarding neon lights?
a. Light is emitted as electrons move through a gas in a tube.
b. All neon lights are colored by the color of the tubing.
c. Neon lights may contain other gases, such as helium or krypton.
d. Each kind of gas produces its own distinctive color.
____ 136. Which kind of light is used to carry information through optical fibers?
a. incandescent c. sodium-vapor light
b. fluorescent d. laser
____ 137. A mirror with a flat surface is a
a. plane mirror. c. concave mirror.
b. convex mirror. d. virtual mirror.
____ 138. In a plane mirror, reflected light rays appear to come from
a. in front of the mirror.
b. an angle above the mirror.
c. a distance behind the observer.
d. behind the mirror.
Figure 19-1
____ 139. What is the point called at which the reflected rays intersect in Figure 19-1?
a. virtual image c. focal point
b. plane image d. illumination point
____ 140. A convex mirror can form
a. both virtual and real images. c. only virtual images.
b. only real images. d. none of the above
____ 141. Suppose a light ray traveling in air passes sideways through a glass of water and comes out the other side. How many times will the light ray refract?
a. one time; through the water
b. two times; through the glass and the water
c. three times; through glass, water, and glass again
d. four times; through glass, water, glass, and air
____ 142. A concave lens can only form a
a. real image. c. virtual image.
b. reversed image. d. magnified image.
____ 143. Which statement is correct regarding a refracting telescope?
a. It produces an enlarged real image.
b. It produces an enlarged virtual image.
c. It produces a reduced-size image.
d. It produces a small, upside-down image.
____ 144. What must be done to a film camera to bring an object into focus on the film?
a. The lens must be moved toward or away from the film.
b. The diaphragm must be closed.
c. The film must be coated with a light-sensitive chemical.
d. The film must be developed and printed.
____ 145. What is the function of a diaphragm in a film camera?
a. It directs the image to the viewfinder.
b. It focuses incoming light rays.
c. It opens the shutter.
d. It controls the amount of light passing into the film camera.
____ 146. The lens of the human eye focuses light by
a. changing its index of refraction.
b. controlling the amount of light entering the eye.
c. changing color.
d. changing shape.
____ 147. Which of the following correctly describes the path that light takes when it enters the eye?
a. cornea, pupil, lens, retina c. lens, cornea, pupil, retina
b. pupil, cornea, lens, retina d. retina, lens, cornea, pupil
____ 148. How is the iris of an eye similar to the diaphragm of a film camera?
a. They both control the amount of light passing through.
b. They both focus light rays.
c. They both produce an upside-down image.
d. They both control the movement of the lens.
____ 149. The two layers that make up the lithosphere are the
a. upper mantle and lower mantle.
b. oceanic crust and continental crust.
c. inner core and outer core.
d. crust and upper mantle.
____ 150. The three main layers of Earth’s interior are the
a. crust, core, and lithosphere.
b. crust, mantle, and core.
c. mantle, inner core, and outer core.
d. crust, mantle, and asthenosphere.
____ 151. A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a crystal structure and a characteristic chemical composition is a
a. rock. c. mineral.
b. fossil. d. piece of granite.
____ 152. The hypothesis that the continents move slowly over Earth’s surface and once were joined into one supercontinent is called
a. plate tectonics. c. sea-floor spreading.
b. continental drift. d. subduction.
____ 153. The heat that drives mantle convection comes from the gradual cooling of Earth’s interior and
a. the sun. c. sea-floor spreading.
b. the decay of radioactive isotopes. d. trenches.
____ 154. What is a break in a rock mass along which movement occurs?
a. fold c. fault
b. earthquake d. epicenter
____ 155. What determines whether a volcano erupts quietly or explosively?
a. the size of the volcano
b. the age of the volcano
c. the characteristics of the magma
d. the magnitude of nearby earthquakes
____ 156. Composite volcanoes are produced by
a. quiet eruptions of lava.
b. explosive eruptions of lava and ash.
c. explosive eruptions of ash and cinders.
d. quiet eruptions that alternate with explosive eruptions.
____ 157. A steep-sided volcano formed entirely of ash and cinders is a
a. shield volcano. c. cinder cone.
b. composite volcano. d. hot spot.
____ 158. Which processes are involved in erosion?
a. precipitation, evaporation, and condensation
b. weathering, runoff, and transpiration
c. weathering, evaporation, and runoff
d. weathering, the force of gravity, and wind
____ 159. Which of the following is an example of erosion?
a. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the force of gravity
b. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the action of wind
c. to wear down and carry away rock and soil through the action of water
d. all of the above
____ 160. Which of the following rock types and conditions would result in the highest rate of chemical weathering?
a. granite in a cold and dry area c. slate in a hot and rainy area
b. limestone in a hot and rainy area d. granite in a hot and dry area
____ 161. A sediment deposit formed when a stream flows into a lake or the ocean is called a(an)
a. alluvial fan. c. meander.
b. delta. d. natural levee.
____ 162. The portion of a stream that flows through gently sloping flood plains is often characterized by
a. V-shaped valleys and waterfalls. c. meanders and oxbow lakes.
b. steep valleys and rapids. d. meanders and waterfalls.
____ 163. Caves are formed by erosion from
a. glaciers. c. wind.
b. streams. d. groundwater.
____ 164. What pyramid-shaped glacial formation is a combination of several connected ridges?
a. a horn c. a moraine
b. a U-shaped valley d. a cirque
____ 165. Deposits formed from windblown sand are called
a. moraines. c. dunes.
b. loess. d. cirques.
____ 166. Why do most ocean organisms live above a water depth of 500 meters?
a. Pressure below that depth is too great.
b. Temperature below that depth is too high.
c. Pressure below that depth is too low.
d. Light below that depth is too bright.
____ 167. Geologists could use which of the following to compare the age of sedimentary rock layers in Bryce Canyon with sedimentary rock layers in the Grand Canyon?
a. radioactive isotopes c. relative dating
b. index fossils d. all of the above
____ 168. Most weather takes place in the
a. stratosphere. c. troposphere.
b. thermosphere. d. mesosphere.
____ 169. The ozone layer is located in the
a. lower troposphere. c. upper ionosphere.
b. lower thermosphere. d. upper stratosphere.
____ 170. Which of the following lists all the zones in the correct order, starting at the North Pole and ending at the South Pole?
a. polar, temperate, tropic, polar
b. polar, temperate, tropic, temperate, polar
c. polar, tropic, temperate, polar
d. polar, tropic, temperate, tropic, polar
____ 171. A cloud is a dense, visible mass of
a. tiny water droplets. c. water vapor.
b. ice crystals. d. both (a) and (b)
____ 172. Low, flat layers of clouds that often cover much of the sky and produce steady and widespread rain are
a. cumulonimbus clouds. c. nimbostratus clouds.
b. cirrus clouds. d. altostratus clouds.
____ 173. Round, solid pieces of ice more than 5 millimeters in diameter fall as
a. hail. c. snow.
b. sleet. d. freezing rain.
____ 174. Which of the following air masses forms over land north of 50° north latitude?
a. maritime polar c. continental polar
b. temperate continental d. continental tropical
____ 175. Which of the following is a characteristic of an anticyclone?
a. has a center of high pressure
b. has clockwise winds in the Northern Hemisphere
c. is generally associated with clear weather
d. all of the above
Figure 24-1
____ 176. The symbol for Front C in Figure 24-1 represents a(n)
a. cold front. c. warm front.
b. occluded front. d. stationary front.
____ 177. An example of a long-term climate change that occurs naturally is
a. an ice age. c. global warming.
b. an El Niño. d. the greenhouse effect.
____ 178. In a diagram depicting the solar system as heliocentric, what is located at the center?
a. Earth c. the moon
b. the sun d. Mars
____ 179. The orbit of a planet around the sun is a(an)
a. ellipse. c. circle.
b. straight line. d. parabola.
____ 180. Which of the following helps explain why the planets remain in motion around the sun?
a. density c. inertia
b. gravity d. both (b) and (c)
____ 181. Who was the first American in space?
a. Yuri Gargarin c. Chuck Yeager
b. Alan Shepard d. Neil Armstrong
____ 182. Why does Earth’s moon have no atmosphere?
a. The average temperature is too high.
b. There are no plants to release oxygen.
c. The moon is too far from Earth.
d. The moon’s gravity is too weak to hold onto gas molecules.
____ 183. Ocean tides are the result of
a. the rotation of Earth.
b. the sun’s gravitational pull on Earth.
c. changes in Earth’s orbital position around the sun.
d. differences in both the sun’s and moon’s gravitational pull on Earth.
____ 184. The four terrestrial planets are so called because they
a. are the nearest planets to Earth.
b. were all once part of Earth.
c. are similar in structure to Earth.
d. can all be seen from Earth without a telescope.
____ 185. Which of the gas giants has the largest diameter?
a. Jupiter c. Saturn
b. Uranus d. Neptune
____ 186. Comets are made mostly of
a. iron. c. hydrogen and helium.
b. ice and rock. d. methane.
____ 187. Which of the following is a wide belt of objects that extends beyond Pluto's orbit?
a. the asteroid belt c. the Kuiper belt
b. the Oort cloud d. none of the above
____ 188. According to the nebular theory, the solar system formed from
a. accretion of protoplanets. c. colliding planetesimals.
b. a large, thin cloud of dust and gas. d. all of the above
____ 189. Which of the following statements explains why the terrestrial planets are small and rocky instead of large and less dense like the gas giants?
a. The inner planets were exposed to much higher temperatures.
b. Ice-forming compounds vaporize at high temperatures.
c. Rock-forming materials can condense at high temperatures.
d. all of the above
____ 190. The sun remains stable over time because
a. its supply of hydrogen is inexhaustible.
b. the product of fusion, helium, is a stable element.
c. the inward pull of gravity and outward push of thermal pressure are balanced.
d. nuclear fusion is a stabilizing process.
____ 191. The parallax of a star is observed because
a. all stars have the same apparent brightness.
b. parallax increases with distance.
c. stars do not move.
d. the observer moves.
____ 192. Astronomers classify stars according to their
a. distance from Earth. c. age and parallax.
b. color, size, and absolute brightness. d. all of the above
____ 193. A hot, bright star would appear in which section of an H-R diagram?
a. lower left c. upper left
b. upper right d. lower right
____ 194. Which kind of star is most likely to spend the longest time on the main sequence?
a. a low-mass red star c. a high-mass blue star
b. a yellow star like the sun d. a bright white star
____ 195. Why is studying star clusters useful?
a. because there is such a large diversity of stars in a cluster
b. because they are about the same age and distance from Earth
c. because they are all about the same size and temperature
d. because all of them are always young, bright stars
____ 196. A large group of older stars would be found in which of the following star clusters?
a. open cluster c. globular cluster
b. association d. both (a) and (b)
____ 197. Galaxies are classified into four groups based on their
a. shapes. c. number of stars.
b. sizes. d. brightness.
____ 198. When the absorption lines of a galaxy shift toward the blue end of the spectrum, it means that the galaxy is
a. moving away from Earth. c. moving closer to Earth.
b. small and young. d. large and old.
____ 199. Hubble’s Law states that the speed at which a galaxy is moving away is proportional to the
a. mass of the galaxy. c. galaxy’s distance from Earth.
b. number of stars in the galaxy. d. age of the galaxy.
____ 200. The big bang theory explains the
a. origin of the universe. c. Doppler effect.
b. life cycle of a star. d. arrangement of constellations.
Short Answer
201. Why do scientists speak at conferences and write articles in scientific journals?
202. What is viscosity?
203. If an atom of an element has a mass number of 32 and 20 neutrons in its nucleus, what is the atomic number of the element?
204. Among the alkaline earth metals in Group 2A, which is more reactive—beryllium (element 4) or strontium (element 38)?
205. Sodium, an alkali metal, and chlorine, a halogen, are both in Period 3 of the periodic table. Which element has a higher ionization energy? Explain your answer.
Figure 7-1
206. In Figure 7-1, both the reactants and the product of the reaction are gases. In this equilibrium, the reaction that produces fewer gas molecules is favored. Explain why increasing the pressure on the reaction favors the formation of ammonia rather than the formation of the reactants.
207. What is a buffer solution?
208. Describe the structure of a film badge that detects radiation.
209. In the equation for acceleration, , how can you describe acceleration if the numerator is negative?
210. What is the direction of the net force on a falling sky diver before she reaches terminal velocity? After she is falling at terminal velocity?
211. How is a pair of scissors a compound machine? Explain your answer.
212. What evidence is there that energy is transferred as a golf club does work on a golf ball?
213. What is the most familiar form of electromagnetic energy?
214. Describe how a wave must enter a new medium in order for refraction to occur.
215. What is the Doppler effect?
216. Why must a microscope slide be made of a transparent material like glass if the glass does not magnify the image?
217. What feature is formed when rocks bend under stress but do not break?
218. Explain why sea breezes occur during the day.
219. Explain the odd and irregular shapes of most asteroids.
220. What are the very bright stars in the upper right of an H-R diagram called?
Problem
221. When iron metal reacts with oxygen, the reaction can form Fe2O3. Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction, and find the number of moles of oxygen that are needed to form 6 mol of Fe2O3.
222. A sample of phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.28 days. If 55 g of this radioisotope remain unchanged after approximately 57 days, what was the mass of the original sample?
223. After 15 minutes, 30 g of a sample of polonium-218 remain unchanged. If the original sample had a mass of 960 g, what is the half-life of polonium-218?
224. A small engine causes a 0.3-kg model airplane to accelerate at a rate of 11 m/s2. What is the net force on the model airplane? Show your work.
225. A 20-N force applied to the handle of a door produces a 44-N output force. What is the AMA of the handle? Show your work.
226. What is the kinetic energy of a 72.0-kg sky diver falling at a terminal velocity of 79.0 m/s? Show your work.
227. A 0.47-kg squirrel jumps from a tree branch that is 3.5 m high to the top of a bird feeder that is 1.2 m high. What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the squirrel? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.) Show your work.
228. A small dog is trained to jump straight up a distance of 1.2 m. How much kinetic energy does the 7.2-kg dog need to jump this high? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.) Show your work.
229. In a nuclear reaction, an amount of matter having a mass of 1.0 ´ 10–12 kg is converted into energy, which is released. How much energy is released? (The speed of light is 3.0 ´ 108 m/s.) Show your work.
230. A communications satellite transmits a radio wave at a frequency of 5.0 109 Hz. What is the signal’s wavelength? Assume the wave travels in a vacuum. Show your work.
Essay
231. Explain the path followed by carbon-14 atoms from when they form in the atmosphere until they are found in compounds in the human body.
232. How can earthquakes be used to map the location of a plate boundary?
233. Your teacher provides you with two white mineral samples. One is quartz and one is calcite. Describe the tests you could use to identify the samples.
234. Describe the journey of a water molecule through the water cycle.
Labels: Final
posted by duque_teaches | 12:22 AM
|
0 comments
